PCNSE7 PDF Demo
Question: 1
A host attached to Ethernet 1/4 cannot ping the default gateway. The widget on the dashboard shows Ethernet 1/1 and Ethernet 1/4 to be green. The IP address of Ethernet 1/1 is 192.168.1.7 and the IP address of Ethernet 1/4 is 10.1.1.7. The default gateway is attached to Ethernet 1/1. A default route is properly configured.
What can be the cause of this problem?
A. No Zone has been configured on Ethernet 1/4.
B. Interface Ethernet 1/1 is in Virtual Wire Mode.
C. DNS has not been properly configured on the firewall.
D. DNS has not been properly configured on the host.
Answer: A
Question: 2
Site-A and Site-B have a site-to-site VPN set up between them. OSPF is configured to dynamically create the routes between the sites. The OSPF configuration in Site-A is configured properly, but the route for the tunner is not being established. The Site-B interfaces in the graphic are using a broadcast Link Type. The administrator has determined that the OSPF configuration in Site-B is using the wrong Link Type for one of its interfaces.
Which Link Type setting will correct the error?
A. Set tunnel. 1 to p2p
B. Set tunnel. 1 to p2mp
C. Set Ethernet 1/1 to p2mp
D. Set Ethernet 1/1 to p2p
Answer: A
Question: 3
Given the following table.
Which configuration change on the firewall would cause it to use 10.66.24.88 as the next hop for the 192.168.93.0/30 network?
A. Configuring the administrative Distance for RIP to be lower than that of OSPF Int.
B. Configuring the metric for RIP to be higher than that of OSPF Int.
C. Configuring the administrative Distance for RIP to be higher than that of OSPF Ext.
D. Configuring the metric for RIP to be lower than that OSPF Ext.
Answer: A
Question: 4
A VPN connection is set up between Site-A and Site-B, but no traffic is passing in the system log of Site-A, there is an event logged as like-nego-p1-fail-psk.
What action will bring the VPN up and allow traffic to start passing between the sites?
A. Change the Site-B IKE Gateway profile version to match Site-A,
B. Change the Site-A IKE Gateway profile exchange mode to aggressive mode.
C. Enable NAT Traversal on the Site-A IKE Gateway profile.
D. Change the pre-shared key of Site-B to match the pre-shared key of Site-A
Answer: D
Question: 5
A company is upgrading its existing Palo Alto Networks firewall from version 7.0.1 to 7.0.4.
Which three methods can the firewall administrator use to install PAN-OS 7.0.4 across the enterprise?( Choose three)
A. Download PAN-OS 7.0.4 files from the support site and install them on each firewall after manually uploading.
B. Download PAN-OS 7.0.4 to a USB drive and the firewall will automatically update after the USB drive is inserted in the firewall.
C. Push the PAN-OS 7.0.4 updates from the support site to install on each firewall.
D. Push the PAN-OS 7.0.4 update from one firewall to all of the other remaining after updating one firewall.
E. Download and install PAN-OS 7.0.4 directly on each firewall.
F. Download and push PAN-OS 7.0.4 from Panorama to each firewall.
Answer: ACF
Question: 6
A logging infrastructure may need to handle more than 10,000 logs per second.
Which two options support a dedicated log collector function? (Choose two)
A. Panorama virtual appliance on ESX(i) only
B. M-500
C. M-100 with Panorama installed
D. M-100
Answer: BC
Explanation:
(https://live.paloaltonetworks.com/t5/Management-Articles/Panorama-Sizing-and-Design-Guide/ta-p/72181)
Question: 7
Which three fields can be included in a pcap filter? (Choose three)
A. Egress interface
B. Source IP
C. Rule number
D. Destination IP
E. Ingress interface
Answer: BCD
Explanation:
(https://live.paloaltonetworks.com/t5/Featured-Articles/Getting-Started-Packet-Capture/ta-p/72069)
Question: 8
A company hosts a publically accessible web server behind a Palo Alto Networks next generation firewall with the following configuration information.
Users outside the company are in the "Untrust-L3" zone
The web server physically resides in the "Trust-L3" zone.
Web server public IP address: 23.54.6.10
Web server private IP address: 192.168.1.10
Which two items must be NAT policy contain to allow users in the untrust-L3 zone to access the web server? (Choose two)
A. Untrust-L3 for both Source and Destination zone
B. Destination IP of 192.168.1.10
C. Untrust-L3 for Source Zone and Trust-L3 for Destination Zone
D. Destination IP of 23.54.6.10
Answer: CD
300-115 Study Guides
Question: 1
What is the maximum number of switches that can be stacked using Cisco StackWise?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 8
D. 9
E. 10
F. 13
Answer: D
Question: 2
A network engineer wants to add a new switch to an existing switch stack. Which configuration must be added to the new switch before it can be added to the switch stack?
A. No configuration must be added.
B. stack ID
C. IP address
D. VLAN information
E. VTP information
Answer: A
Question: 3
What percentage of bandwidth is reduced when a stack cable is broken?
A. 0
B. 25
C. 50
D. 75
E. 100
Answer: C
Question: 4
Refer to the exhibit.
Which set of configurations will result in all ports on both switches successfully bundling into an EtherChannel?
A. switch1
channel-group 1 mode active
switch2
channel-group 1 mode auto
B. switch1
channel-group 1 mode desirable
switch2
channel-group 1 mode passive
C. switch1
channel-group 1 mode on
switch2
channel-group 1 mode auto
D. switch1
channel-group 1 mode desirable
switch2
channel-group 1 mode auto
Answer: D
Question: 5
Refer to the exhibit.
How can the traffic that is mirrored out the GigabitEthernet0/48 port be limited to only traffic that is received or transmitted in VLAN 10 on the GigabitEthernet0/1 port?
A. Change the configuration for GigabitEthernet0/48 so that it is a member of VLAN 10.
B. Add an access list to GigabitEthernet0/48 to filter out traffic that is not in VLAN 10.
C. Apply the monitor session filter globally to allow only traffic from VLAN 10.
D. Change the monitor session source to VLAN 10 instead of the physical interface.
Answer: C
Question: 6
Refer to the exhibit.
A network engineer wants to analyze all incoming and outgoing packets for an interface that is connected to an access switch. Which three items must be configured to mirror traffic to a packet sniffer that is connected to the distribution switch? (Choose three.)
A. A monitor session on the distribution switch with a physical interface as the source and the remote SPAN VLAN as the destination
B. A remote SPAN VLAN on the distribution and access layer switch
C. A monitor session on the access switch with a physical interface source and the remote SPAN VLAN as the destination
D. A monitor session on the distribution switch with a remote SPAN VLAN as the source and physical interface as the destination
E. A monitor session on the access switch with a remote SPAN VLAN source and the physical interface as the destination
F. A monitor session on the distribution switch with a physical interface as the source and a physical interface as the destination
Answer: B, C, D
Question: 7
After an EtherChannel is configured between two Cisco switches, interface port channel 1 is in the down/down state. Switch A is configured with channel-group 1 mode active, while Switch B is configured with channel-group 1 mode desirable. Why is the EtherChannel bundle not working?
A. The switches are using mismatched EtherChannel negotiation modes.
B. The switch ports are not configured in trunking mode.
C. LACP priority must be configured on both switches.
D. The channel group identifier must be different for Switch A and Switch B.
Answer: A
Question: 8
An EtherChannel bundle has been established between a Cisco switch and a corporate web server. The network administrator noticed that only one of the EtherChannel links is being utilized to reach the web server. What should be done on the Cisco switch to allow for better EtherChannel utilization to the corporate web server?
A. Enable Cisco Express Forwarding to allow for more effective traffic sharing over the EtherChannel bundle.
B. Adjust the EtherChannel load-balancing method based on destination IP addresses.
C. Disable spanning tree on all interfaces that are participating in the EtherChannel bundle.
D. Use link-state tracking to allow for improved load balancing of traffic upon link failure to the server.
E. Adjust the EtherChannel load-balancing method based on source IP addresses.
Answer: E
Question: 9
Interface FastEthernet0/1 is configured as a trunk interface that allows all VLANs. This command is configured globally:
monitor session 2 filter vlan 1 - 8, 39, 52
What is the result of the implemented command?
A. All VLAN traffic is sent to the SPAN destination interface.
B. Traffic from VLAN 4 is not sent to the SPAN destination interface.
C. Filtering a trunked SPAN port effectively disables SPAN operations for all VLANs.
D. The trunk's native VLAN must be changed to something other than VLAN 1.
E. Traffic from VLANs 1 to 8, 39, and 52 is replicated to the SPAN destination port.
Answer: E
Question: 10
A network engineer notices inconsistent Cisco Discovery Protocol neighbors according to the diagram that is provided. The engineer notices only a single neighbor that uses Cisco Discovery Protocol, but it has several routing neighbor relationships. What would cause the output to show only the single neighbor?
A. The routers are connected via a Layer 2 switch.
B. IP routing is disabled on neighboring devices.
C. Cisco Express Forwarding is enabled locally.
D. Cisco Discovery Protocol advertisements are inconsistent between the local and remote devices.
Answer: A
Question: 11
After the implementation of several different types of switches from different vendors, a network engineer notices that directly connected devices that use Cisco Discovery Protocol are not visible. Which vendor-neutral protocol could be used to resolve this issue?
A. Local Area Mobility
B. Link Layer Discovery Protocol
C. NetFlow
D. Directed Response Protocol
Answer: B
Question: 12
Several new switches have been added to the existing network as VTP clients. All of the new switches have been configured with the same VTP domain, password, and version. However, VLANs are not passing from the VTP server (existing network) to the VTP clients. What must be done to fix this?
A. Remove the VTP domain name from all switches with "null" and then replace it with the new domain name.
B. Configure a different native VLAN on all new switches that are configured as VTP clients.
C. Provision one of the new switches to be the VTP server and duplicate information from the existing network.
D. Ensure that all switch interconnects are configured as trunks to allow VTP information to be transferred.
Answer: D
Question: 13
After implementing VTP, the extended VLANs are not being propagated to other VTP switches. What should be configured for extended VLANs?
A. VTP does not support extended VLANs and should be manually added to all switches.
B. Enable VTP version 3, which supports extended VLAN propagation.
C. VTP authentication is required when using extended VLANs because of their ability to cause network instability.
D. Ensure that all switches run the same Cisco IOS version. Extended VLANs will not propagate to different IOS versions when extended VLANs are in use.
Answer: B
Question: 14
Refer to the exhibit.
Switch A, B, and C are trunked together and have been properly configured for VTP. Switch C receives VLAN information from the VTP server Switch A, but Switch B does not receive any VLAN information. What is the most probable cause of this behavior?
A. Switch B is configured in transparent mode.
B. Switch B is configured with an access port to Switch A, while Switch C is configured with a trunk port to Switch B.
C. The VTP revision number of the Switch B is higher than that of Switch A.
D. The trunk between Switch A and Switch B is misconfigured.
Answer: A
Question: 15
Refer to the exhibit.
Switch A, B, and C are trunked together and have been properly configured for VTP. Switch B has all VLANs, but Switch C is not receiving traffic from certain VLANs. What would cause this issue?
A. A VTP authentication mismatch occurred between Switch A and Switch B.
B. The VTP revision number of Switch B is higher than that of Switch A.
C. VTP pruning is configured globally on all switches and it removed VLANs from the trunk interface that is connected to Switch C.
D. The trunk between Switch A and Switch B is misconfigured.
Answer: C
Question: 16
After the recent upgrade of the switching infrastructure, the network engineer notices that the port roles that were once "blocking" are now defined as "alternate" and "backup." What is the reason for this change?
A. The new switches are using RSTP instead of legacy IEEE 802.1D STP.
B. IEEE 802.1D STP and PortFast have been configured by default on all newly implemented Cisco Catalyst switches.
C. The administrator has defined the switch as the root in the STP domain.
D. The port roles have been adjusted based on the interface bandwidth and timers of the new Cisco Catalyst switches.
Answer: A
Question: 17
An administrator recently configured all ports for rapid transition using PortFast. After testing, it has been determined that several ports are not transitioning as they should. What is the reason for this?
A. RSTP has been enabled per interface and not globally.
B. The STP root bridge selection is forcing key ports to remain in non-rapid transitioning mode.
C. STP is unable to achieve rapid transition for trunk links.
D. The switch does not have the processing power to ensure rapid transition for all ports.
Answer: C
Question: 18
Which technique automatically limits VLAN traffic to only the switches that require it?
A. access lists
B. DTP in nonegotiate
C. VTP pruning
D. PBR
Answer: C
Question: 19
What effect does the mac address-table aging-time 180 command have on the MAC address-table?
A. This is how long a dynamic MAC address will remain in the CAM table.
B. The MAC address-table will be flushed every 3 minutes.
C. The default timeout period will be 360 seconds.
D. ARP requests will be processed less frequently by the switch.
E. The MAC address-table will hold addresses 180 seconds longer than the default of 10 minutes.
Answer: A
Question: 20
While working in the core network building, a technician accidently bumps the fiber connection between two core switches and damages one of the pairs of fiber. As designed, the link was placed into a non-forwarding state due to a fault with UDLD. After the damaged cable was replaced, the link did not recover. What solution allows the network switch to automatically recover from such an issue?
A. macros
B. errdisable autorecovery
C. IP Event Dampening
D. command aliases
E. Bidirectional Forwarding Detection
Answer: B
300-101 Latest Certification Tests
Question: 1
Refer to the exhibit.
Based on this FIB table, which statement is correct?
A. There is no default gateway.
B. The IP address of the router on FastEthernet is 209.168.201.1.
C. The gateway of last resort is 192.168.201.1.
D. The router will listen for all multicast traffic.
Answer: C
Question: 2
Refer to the exhibit.
A network administrator checks this adjacency table on a router. What is a possible cause for the incomplete marking?
A. incomplete ARP information
B. incorrect ACL
C. dynamic routing protocol failure
D. serial link congestion
Answer: A
Question: 3
A network engineer notices that transmission rates of senders of TCP traffic sharply increase and decrease simultaneously during periods of congestion. Which condition causes this?
A. global synchronization
B. tail drop
C. random early detection
D. queue management algorithm
Answer: A
Question: 4
Which three problems result from application mixing of UDP and TCP streams within a network with no QoS? (Choose three.)
A. starvation
B. jitter
C. latency
D. windowing
E. lower throughput
Answer: A, C, E
Question: 5
Which method allows IPv4 and IPv6 to work together without requiring both to be used for a single connection during the migration process?
A. dual-stack method
B. 6to4 tunneling
C. GRE tunneling
D. NAT-PT
Answer: A
Question: 6
Which statement about the use of tunneling to migrate to IPv6 is true?
A. Tunneling is less secure than dual stack or translation.
B. Tunneling is more difficult to configure than dual stack or translation.
C. Tunneling does not enable users of the new protocol to communicate with users of the old protocol without dual-stack hosts.
D. Tunneling destinations are manually determined by the IPv4 address in the low-order 32 bits of IPv4-compatible IPv6 addresses.
Answer: C
Question: 7
A network administrator executes the command clear ip route. Which two tables does this command clear and rebuild? (Choose two.)
A. IP routing
B. FIB
C. ARP cache
D. MAC address table
E. Cisco Express Forwarding table
F. topology table
Answer: A, B
Question: 8
Which switching method is used when entries are present in the output of the command show ip cache?
A. fast switching
B. process switching
C. Cisco Express Forwarding switching
D. cut-through packet switching
Answer: A
Question: 9
Which two actions must you perform to enable and use window scaling on a router? (Choose two.)
A. Execute the command ip tcp window-size 65536.
B. Set window scaling to be used on the remote host.
C. Execute the command ip tcp queuemax.
D. Set TCP options to "enabled" on the remote host.
E. Execute the command ip tcp adjust-mss.
Answer: A, B
Question: 10
Which three TCP enhancements can be used with TCP selective acknowledgments? (Choose three.)
A. header compression
B. explicit congestion notification
C. keepalive
D. time stamps
E. TCP path discovery
F. MTU window
Answer: B, C, D
Question: 11
A network administrator uses IP SLA to measure UDP performance and notices that packets on one router have a higher one-way delay compared to the opposite direction. Which UDP characteristic does this scenario describe?
A. latency
B. starvation
C. connectionless communication
D. nonsequencing unordered packets
E. jitter
Answer: A
Question: 12
Under which condition does UDP dominance occur?
A. when TCP traffic is in the same class as UDP
B. when UDP flows are assigned a lower priority queue
C. when WRED is enabled
D. when ACLs are in place to block TCP traffic
Answer: A
Question: 13
Prior to enabling PPPoE in a virtual private dialup network group, which task must be completed?
A. Disable CDP on the interface.
B. Execute the vpdn enable command.
C. Execute the no switchport command.
D. Enable QoS FIFO for PPPoE support.
Answer: B
Question: 14
A network engineer has been asked to ensure that the PPPoE connection is established and authenticated using an encrypted password. Which technology, in combination with PPPoE, can be used for authentication in this manner?
A. PAP
B. dot1x
C. IPsec
D. CHAP
E. ESP
Answer: D
Question: 15
A corporate policy requires PPPoE to be enabled and to maintain a connection with the ISP, even if no interesting traffic exists. Which feature can be used to accomplish this task?
A. TCP Adjust
B. Dialer Persistent
C. PPPoE Groups
D. half-bridging
E. Peer Neighbor Route
Answer: B
Question: 16
Which PPP authentication method sends authentication information in clear text?
A. MS CHAP
B. CDPCP
C. CHAP
D. PAP
Answer: D
Question: 17
Which protocol uses dynamic address mapping to request the next-hop protocol address for a specific connection?
A. Frame Relay inverse ARP
B. static DLCI mapping
C. Frame Relay broadcast queue
D. dynamic DLCI mapping
Answer: A
Question: 18
Which statement is true about the PPP Session Phase of PPPoE?
A. PPP options are negotiated and authentication is not performed. Once the link setup is completed, PPPoE functions as a Layer 3 encapsulation method that allows data to be transferred over the PPP link within PPPoE headers.
B. PPP options are not negotiated and authentication is performed. Once the link setup is completed, PPPoE functions as a Layer 4 encapsulation method that allows data to be transferred over the PPP link within PPPoE headers.
C. PPP options are automatically enabled and authorization is performed. Once the link setup is completed, PPPoE functions as a Layer 2 encapsulation method that allows data to be encrypted over the PPP link within PPPoE headers.
D. PPP options are negotiated and authentication is performed. Once the link setup is completed, PPPoE functions as a Layer 2 encapsulation method that allows data to be transferred over the PPP link within PPPoE headers.
Answer: D
Question: 19
PPPoE is composed of which two phases?
A. Active Authentication Phase and PPP Session Phase
B. Passive Discovery Phase and PPP Session Phase
C. Active Authorization Phase and PPP Session Phase
D. Active Discovery Phase and PPP Session Phase
Answer: D
Question: 20
Refer to the exhibit.
Which one statement is true?
A. Traffic from the 172.16.0.0/16 network will be blocked by the ACL.
B. The 10.0.0.0/8 network will not be advertised by Router B because the network statement for the 10.0.0.0/8 network is missing from Router B.
C. The 10.0.0.0/8 network will not be in the routing table on Router B.
D. Users on the 10.0.0.0/8 network can successfully ping users on the 192.168.5.0/24 network, but users on the 192.168.5.0/24 cannot successfully ping users on the 10.0.0.0/8 network.
E. Router B will not advertise the 10.0.0.0/8 network because it is blocked by the ACL.
Answer: E
NS0-158 Practice Test Software
Question: 1
Click the Exhibit button.
You create a volume as shown in the exhibit.
Which statement about the new volume is true?
A. A FlexVol volume is created on the aggregate (sas_01 or sas_02) with the most free space.
B. A FlexVol volume is created on aggregate sas_01 can only be moved to aggregate sas_02.
C. A FlexGroup volume is created with eight constituents.
D. A FlexGroup volume is created with two constituents
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Volume create parameter -aggr-list <aggregate name>, ... - List of Aggregates for FlexGroup Constituents
Specifies an array of names of aggregates to be used for FlexGroup constituents. Each entry in the list will create a constituent on the specified aggregate.
References: http://docs.netapp.com/ontap-9/index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.netapp.doc.dot-cm-cmpr-910%2Fvolume__create.html
Question: 2
Which two features are supported by SnapLock Enterprise but not by SnapLock Compliance? (Choose two.)
A. FlexArray
B. privileged delete
C. NetApp Volume Encryption (NVE)
D. SnapMirror
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
Features supported by SnapLock Enterprise but not by SnapLock Compliance include:
Note:
Comparison table of SnapLock Enterprise and SnapLock Compliance
The SnapLock Enterprise and the SnapLock Compliance features differ in terms of the options and permissions available for both the features.
References: https://library.netapp.com/ecmdocs/ECMP1368820/html/GUID-9E05FE59-BF40-4C22-AD4D-ACBCB552D9A0.html
Question: 3
What is the minimum number of disks required to create a data aggregate with a RAID type of RAID-TEC?
A. 7
B. 6
C. 5
D. 4
Answer: B
Explanation:
The aggregate that is to be converted to RAID-TEC must have a minimum of six disks.
Question: 4
Which LIF role type is used by a volume move operation between nodes?
A. data
B. cluster
C. intercluster
D. cluster-mgmt
Answer: D
Question: 5
Which two link layer discovery protocols does NetApp ONTAP support? (Choose two.)
A. Link Layer Topology Discovery Protocol
B. Cisco Discovery Protocol
C. Link Layer Discovery Protocol
D. Foundry Discovery Protocol
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
Data ONTAP supports two neighbor discovery protocols: Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP), and starting in ONTAP 9.0, Link Layer Discovery Protocol (LLDP).
References: ONTAP 9. 0 Network_Management_Guide (January 2017), page 93
https://library.netapp.com/ecm/ecm_download_file/ECMLP2492610
HPE2-T27 Preparation Kits
Question: 1
How do customers obtain HPE OneView management capabilities for HPE Synergy solutions?
A. They deploy HPE OneView on a separate virtual appliance and then discover the Synergy components in HPE OneView.
B. They deploy HPE Helion CloudSystem Enterprise which includes HPE OneView
C. They deploy HPE OneView on a Synergy compute module and activate it with the license provided with the HPE Synergy solution.
D. They deploy HPE Composer modules, which provide embedded HPE OneView capabilities.
Answer: C
Question: 2
Which component does an HPE Synergy compute module require to connect to an HPE D3940 Storage Module?
A. an FC HBA
B. a P244br Controller
C. a P542D Controller
D. an FCoE capable CNA
Answer: C
Question: 3
A customer needs to deploy operating systems on bare metal machines (servers without hypervisors) with the same agility as deploying virtual machines (VMs).
How does an HPE Synergy solution support the customer's need?
A. Administrators set up HPE Synergy D3940 Storage Modules as image repositories, which automatically deploy images to HPE Synergy compute modules installed in the same frame.
B. Administrators integrate HPE Synergy Composer with VMware vCenter and then use vCenter to deploy virtual images to the bare metal HPE Synergy compute modules.
C. Administrators activate the HPE Helion CloudSystem Enterprise appliances that are pre-installed on HPE Synergy compute modules and select the desired images from the catalog.
D. Administrators apply HPE Synergy Composer server profiles to stateless compute modules to define the modules' physical settings and boot them from images on HPE Synergy Image Streamer.
Answer: A
Question: 4
A customer needs an HPE Synergy compute module to host a SQL database for the customer's business-critical CRM solution
What makes the HPE Synergy 620 Gen9 Compute Module a good choice for this customer?
A. It is designed for mission critical workloads and provides of high amount of memory for the SQL database.
B. It provides the highest number of mezzanine cards, meeting the SQL database's needs for high bandwidth.
C. it is a half-height module, so a Synergy Frame can hold 12 of these modules, meeting the scale out needs of a SQL database.
D. It supports a higher density of local HDDs than other Synergy Compute Modules. meeting the storage needs.
Answer: D
Question: 5
A customer is considering an HPE Synergy solution. The customer needs IT to respond to line of business demands for new services more quickly.
What is one way that Synergy supports this initiative better than a traditional blade server solution?
A. Synergy solutions provide several powerful, separate interfaces, each of which is tailored to the specific needs of storage, networking, or server teams .
B. Synergy solutions allow IT to compose services from fluid resource pools using an interface or scripts. C. Synergy solutions come pre-configured for specific solutions according to a reference architecture.
D. Synergy solutions combine power pooling for some components with dedicated power for other components, permitting scalability and performance.
Answer: C
HPE6-A07 Preparation Kits
Question: 1
Which licenses are included in the built-in starter kit for ClearPass?
A. 10 ClearPass Guest licenses,10 ClearPass OnGuard licenses and 10 ClearPass Onboard licenses
B. 10 ClearPass Enterprise licenses
C. 25 ClearPass Policy Manager licenses
D. 25 ClearPass Profiler licenses
E. 25 ClearPass Enterprise licenses
Answer: E
Question: 2
What happens when a client successfully authenticates but does not match any Enforcement Policy rules?
A. no role is applied to the device
B. logon profile is applied to the device
C. default Enforcement profile is applied
D. guest rule is applied to the device
E. defaultrule is applied to the device
Answer: C
Explanation:
The first time a device connects, it's allowed on in a limited state (session timeout is a low value and DHCP is allowed) because it doesn't match any Enforcement policy rules based on Endpoint Category. The default enforcement profile is used.
Question: 3
When Active Directory is added as an authentication source, what should the format be for the Active Directory bin DN?
A. admin.domain.com
B. domain.com\admin
C. domain.com
D. admin@domain.com
E. admin\domain.com
Answer: D
Explanation:
For Active Directory, the bind DN can also be in the administrator@domain format (for example,administrator@acme.com).
Referencehttp://www.arubanetworks.com/techdocs/ClearPass/Aruba_CPPMOnlineHelp/Content/CPPM_UserGuide/Auth/AuthSource_GenericLDAP.htm
Question: 4
Refer to the exhibit. A user has enabled ‘department’ and ‘memberOf’ as roles.
What is the direct effect of the user’s action?
A. The user’s authentication will be rejected if the user does not have an admin user group membership in AD.
B. The user’s memberOf attribute is sent back to the controller as a firewall role.
C. The user’s department and group membership will be seen in the Access tracker roles section.
D. The user’s authentication will be rejected if the user does nothave a department attribute in AD.
E. The user’s department is sent back to the controller as a firewall role.
Answer: A
HPE0-S22 Preparation Kits
Question: 1
A customer has a Hadoop big data and analytics solution. The customer needs a server upgrade to improve performance for this solution and plans to add more solutions that draw on the data, such as a Cassandra NoSQL database. The customer is interested in a flexible HPE Big Data Reference Architecture approach.
Which solution meets the customer’s needs?
A. HPE Moonshot 1500 Systems with m700 cartridges for co-located compute and storage nodes
B. HPE Apollo 4530 Systems for co-located compute and storage nodes
C. HPE Apollo 8000 Systems for the compute nodes and HPE Superdome X Systems for the storage nodes
D. HPE Moonshot 1500 Systems with m710 cartridges for the compute nodes and HPE Apollo 4200 Systems for the storage nodes
Answer: D
Question: 2
A customer recently purchased an HPE Moonshot chassis to host its internal website. Subsequently, the customer reports difficulties deploying new cartridges in an efficient manner. The customer suggests exchanging the solution for a more traditional server platform.
What can the architect demonstrate to the customer to help solve the problem while preserving the validity of the original design solution?
A. how to use SCCM to provide a graphical installation method for new nodes
B. how to use VSP to provide a graphical installation method for new nodes
C. how to add an mRCA module to provide a graphical installation method for new nodes
D. how to use iLO remote console to provide a graphical installation method for new nodes
Answer: C
In order to interface with the specific server cartridge node, the mRCA must be installed in a specific slot within the chassis, relative to the linking server cartridge.
References:
Question: 3
A customer is planning a multi-threaded HPC solution that would benefit from threads running in parallel.
The architect selects the HPE Apollo 6000 and needs to choose between the HPE XL230a and the XL250a compute tray.
What is one reason for choosing the XL250a tray?
A. The HPE XL250a server supports DDR4 HPE Smart Memory.
B. The HPE XL250a server supports dual accelerators.
C. The HPE XL250a server provides full length PCIe expansion slots.
D. The HPE XL250a server delivers dual processor performance.
Answer: B
The HPE ProLiant XL250a Gen9 Server delivers 2P performance for your budget with dual accelerator support, while leveraging the HPE Apollo 6000 System and its modular flexibility and rack-scale efficiency. This server features the Intel® Xeon® E5-2600 v3/v4 series processors and 16 DIMM slots are ready with DDR4 2133 (1024 GB maximum)/2400 (2048 GB maximum) MHz memory and HPE Smart Memory.
References:
Question: 4
An architect takes the following notes during a meeting with a customer:
Which solution should the architect propose to help the customer overcome all of its project challenges?
A. HPE BladeSystem solution with HPE 3PAR storage
B. HPE Apollo 6000 solution with HPE 3PAR storage
C. HPE ConvergedSystem 700 solution with HPE 3PAR storage
D. HPE Apollo 2000 solution with HPE 3PAR storage
Answer: B
Question: 5
View the Exhibit.
Refer to the exhibit. A customer has an HPE c7000 enclosure managed by HPE OneView with HP BL460c Gen9 servers in a vSphere cluster. The customer has multiple vLANs trunked from the top of rack (TOR) switches to the Virtual Connect modules in the enclosure. Due to network Access Control List (ACL) requirement and guidelines from the networking department, all network traffic should be forced to an upstream switch using the Virtual Connect “Private Network” feature.
The customer reports slow network response.
Which modification can the architect recommend to improve network performance?
A. Change the FlexFabric 20/40 adapter modules with Flex 10/100 modules.
B. Change the FlexFabric adapter modules with Flex-10 adapter modules.
C. Remove the Management network from the uplinks.
D. Put the vMotion network in a separate uplink set and disable “Private Network”.
Answer: A
7750X Real PDF Exam Material
Question: 1
With respect to IP Office Contact Center Release 9.1.6 and above, which three parameters are not contained in the import excel spreadsheet and must be configured in the User Interface after the import? (Choose three.)
A. Profiles
B. Hold duration time for last agent functionality
C. System holidays
D. Topic block times
E. Custom specific announcements
Answer: B, C, E
Question: 2
You have completed the Avaya_IP_Office_Contact_Center_Configuration.xlsm workbook and are ready to launch the DataImport.exe file.
Which two passwords are required to execute the DataImport.exe successfully? (Choose two.)
A. WebLM administrator password
B. IP Office Security User password
C. IP Office Service User password
D. IPOCC Administrator password
E. IP Office System password
Answer: D, E
Question: 3
You have successfully deployed an IPOCC server in the customer's virtual environment and have configured the virtual machine to meet the OVA specifications in the Avaya IP Office Contact Center Reference Configuration document.
Which two tasks do you need to complete before importing the customer intonation into IPOCC? (Choose two.)
A. Change the IP Office Service User password
B. Upgrade the VMWare Tools on the IPOCC Server to the latest release
C. Configure the Network Settings on the IPOCC Server
D. Change the IPOCC Server Hostname
E. Install the vSphere Client on the IPOCC Server
Answer: B, C
Question: 4
View the Exhibit.
Refer to the exhibit. The exhibit shows a screen shot of a tag that has been created in the tag list.
What is the intended purpose of this tag?
A. to reject any caller from Germany
B. to pass the call to a German language auto attendant
C. to identify calls with a German telephone number
D. to pass the call too an agent with German speaking skills
Answer: A
Question: 5
You have entered your licenses successfully, and now you want to check you have the correct amount of supervisor licenses for the customer.
Which screen in WebLM will show you this information?
A. CIE View License Capacity
B. CIE View Peak Usage
C. License Install
D. Licensed Product
Answer: C
Explanation:
Referencehttps://downloads.avaya.com/css/P8/documents/100057555(page 12)
200-150Preparation Material
Question: 1
Refer to the exhibit. Two Layer 2 Cisco Nexus switches are connected to application servers in a data center. Server A cannot communicate with servers that are in VLANs 3 and 4, but t can communicate with server B and C. What is the cause of the problem?
A. inter VLANs routing is not enabled on both switches
B. Switch I and switch 2 are not physically connected via an access link.
C. A router must be connected to both switches and provide inter VLAN routing.
D. Switch 1 and switch 2 not physically connected via a trunk link.
Answer: C
Question: 2
Which two options describe Junctions of the data center aggregation layer? (Choose two)
A. services layer
B. high-speed packet switching O repeater
C. access control
D. QoS marking
Answer: AC
Question: 3
Which two options are valid VTP commands? {Choose two)
A. feature vtp
B. vtp client mode
C. vtp VLAN
D. vtp version
E. vtp static
Answer: A,D
Question: 4
Which two features must be licensed on a Cisco Nexus 7000 Switch? (Choose two)
A. Virtual Port Channel
B. Layer 3
C. Virtual Device Contexts
D. iSCSI
E. Fibre Channel
Answer: BC
Question: 5
Which two options are multicast addresses? (Choose two.)
A. FD00::2
B. 192.168.2.2
C. FF05::2
D. 226.10.10.10
E. 240.1.0.1
Answer: CE
156-730 Exam Certification
Question: 1
Which protocols are supported by the THREAT EMULATION blade?
A. CIFS, FTP, and optional HTTP and SMTP support
B. HTTP(S), SMTP/TLS only
C. HTTP and SMTP only, there is no SSL/TLS security support
D. HTTP(S), SMTP/TLS with optional CIFS
Answer: D
Question: 2
Which SmartConsole can you use to view Threat Emulation forensics reports?
A. SmartView Monitor
B. SmartView Reporter
C. SmartLog
D. SmartDashboard
Answer: C
Question: 3
How does Threat Extraction work?
A. Scan and extract files for Command and Control activity.
B. It emulates a document and, if malicious, converts it into a PDF.
C. It extracts active content from a document.
D. It scans the document for malicious code and removes it.
Answer: C
Question: 4
What kind of approach or approaches will Check Point SandBlast apply to prevent malicious EXE-files?
A. Machine learning algorithmB. Signature
B. Exploit
C. Whitelist and Exploit
Answer: C
Question: 5
You have installed the SandBlast Agent with forensics. An attack has occurred, which triggered the Forensics Blade to collect information. You clicked to open the forensics report but for some reason it is not showing the report as it should. What could be the issue?
A. The attack was based on a macro and the Forensics Blade only supports executables.
B. There is a Microsoft update missing which causes the report not to show as it should.
C. There was no real attack and this is a false positive.
D. Threat Emulation is disabled.
Answer: B
1Z0-347 Preparation Material
Question: 1
You are implementing the entire suite of Supply Chain Management Cloud for an auto component manufacturing and distribution company. This company has a manufacturing facility where different auto electrical components are produced to fulfill the demand that originates from various customers. One of the components that the company sells to its customers requires specialized operations; therefore, the company outsources it to an external manufacturer instead of producing it in its own facility.
Which two steps are required to fulfill the demand for this component through outsourced
manufacturing? (Choose two.)
A. Define this component as an Item with the “Contract Manufacturing” field enabled and the "Make or Buy" attribute set to “Buy.”
B. Define this component as an Item with the “Contract Manufacturing” field enabled and the “Make or Buy” attribute set to “Make.”
C. Select the Customer Sales Order Fulfillment check box under the Procurement offering.
D. Create a sourcing rule of the Buy type for this component in the selling inventory organization.
E. Model the manufacturer to which thecomponent production is outsourced as a Supplier in the enterprise.
F. Create a sourcing rule of the Make type for this component in the selling inventory organization.
Answer: A,C
Question: 2
Which process requires the Process Supply Chain Orchestration Interface process to be executed manually so that a supply order gets created?
A. Planned Order Releases
B. Drop Shipment
C. Back-to-Back Procurement
D. Back-to-Back Contract Manufacturing
E. Min-Max planning replenishing a purchase request
Answer: E
Needs to be run manually for Inventory MINMAX
Referencehttps://docs.oracle.com/cloud/latest/scmcs_gs/FAIMS/FAIMS1922443.htm#FAIMS1922441
Question: 3
Identify the task that the seeded Warehouse Operator role can perform.
A. monitor and release sales orders for picking in the warehouse
B. search for a pick slip and confirm it
C. process and confirm outbound shipments
D. generate outboundshipping documentation
E. generate pick slips for picking material for outbound material movement
Answer: C
Question: 4
How does Order Management interact with multiple fulfillment systems to fulfill sales order lines?
A. It has a web service brokerthat routes requests from the Fulfillment Task Layer.
B. It has a web service broker that routes requests from the External Interface Layer.
C. The Fulfillment system routing is defined in the orchestration.
D. The sales order lines are converted to Fulfillment Lines and fed to the Fulfillment systems.
Answer: C
Explanation
An orchestration process routes and manages sales orders across multiple fulfillment systems. For example, you can use a schedule, ship, and bill process to route order lines to two different enterprise resource planning (ERP) systems.
Referencehttps://docs.oracle.com/cloud/farel11/scmcs_gs/FAIOM/FAIOM1726751.htm
Question: 5
You are in the process of setting up a constraint that prohibits update to an extensible flexfield in a fulfillment line if Ship From Warehouse is X and the fulfillment line is booked. You are able to see the extensible flexfield on the “Manage Constraint Entities” page but not on the “Manage Processing Constraints” page.
What could be the reason?
A. The “generate packages” program was not submitted.
B. The “Publish extensible flexfield” process was not run.
C. The extensible flexfield is not enabled.
D. A “Record Set”needs to be created for the extensible flexfield to be visible on the “ManageProcessing Constraints” page.
Answer: D
Explanation
A record set is a group of records that are bound by common attribute values for the purpose of constraint evaluation. You can define conditions and specify a record set to be validated for a given condition as defined by the validation template.
Referencehttps://docs.oracle.com/cloud/farel8/scmcs_gs/FAOFO/F1191897AN12E0B.htm
642-980 Latest Certification Tests
Question: 1
Which command displays the traffic statistics for a port channel interface?
A. show interface port-channel channel-number
B. show port-channel traffic
C. show port-channel usage
D. show port-channel compatibility-parameters
Answer: B
Question: 2
Which statement is true regarding LACP configuration?
A. With LACP, you can bundle up to 16 interfaces in a channel group.
B. LACP configuration is global and can be only configured by admin.
C. After removing LACP configuration, you need to reboot the device.
D. You can disable LACP while any LACP configurations are present.
Answer: A
Question: 3
Which two statements are true regarding vPC configuration? (Choose two.)
A. With vPC, there are no blocked ports.
B. vPC uses hash-based EtherChannel load balancing.
C. There are STP-blocked redundant links.
D. There is VLAN-based load balancing.
E. There is higher oversubscription.
Answer: A, B
Question: 4
Refer to exhibit.
Customer has a pair of Cisco Nexus7010s switches and connected to a single Cisco Nexus5548 switch via vPC. Customer has a combination of M1 and F1 I/O Modules in Cisco Nexus7010s.
Why is the design described not supported?
A. Mixing I/O Modules on the Same Side of a Peer Link is not supported
B. vPC does not support split control plane
C. You can not configure a vPC peer link to configure two devices as vPCs
D. Need to add another Cisco Nexus5548 switch to the topology to make this work.
Answer: A
Question: 5
What is one requirement for running FabricPath on a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series switches?
A. You must have an F Series module
B. You must run NX-OS version 4.2 to run FabrciPath
C. ISSU needs to be disabled to run FabricPath
D. LAN_TRANSPORT_SERVICES_PKG license needs to be installed to run FabrciPath
Answer: A
Question: 6
Which statement is true regarding Cisco FabricPath?
A. It is necessary to first install the Cisco FabricPath feature set in the default VDC.
B. Cisco FabricPath is only available on Cisco Nexus 7010 Switches with the Supervisor 2 engine.
C. Cisco FabricPath cannot be disabled explicitly for a specific VDC.
D. If the Cisco FabricPath feature is not installed, the fabricpath keyword will be available in the feature-set command.
Answer: A
Question: 7
Your customer is an ISP providing service to thousands of end customers. Its main concerns are focused on using up the total number of 4096 VLANs per VDC, wasting an unused block of IP addresses, and IP address management. Which technique will address these concerns?
A. create a separate VDC to scale VLAN limitation and upgrade to Cisco Nexus 7018 Switch
B. segment VLANs using secondary IP addresses, which will reduce the management domain
C. create mapping between the VLAN and VSAN to run FCoE to consolidate VLAN and IP addresses
D. use PVLANs, which will solve the scalability problem and provide IP address management
Answer: D
Question: 8
Which statement is true regarding STP?
A. When the spanning-tree topology is calculated based on default parameters, the path between the source and destination end stations in a switched network might not be ideal.
B. The path between the source and the destination end stations is always ideal with the default spanning-tree parameter.
C. The path between the source and the destination end stations is determined by the speed of the link; the slowest link speed will become the root port during the election.
D. The path between the source and the destination end stations is determined by the lowest MAC address; the lowest MAC address will become the root port during the election.
Answer: A
Question: 9
On the secondary vPC switch, under which circumstance does the vPC autorecovery feature not bring up the vPC member ports?
A. Peer link fails, and subsequently, the peer-keepalive link fails.
B. Peer link is up, and the peer-keepalive link fails.
C. Both vPC peers are reloaded, and the primary does not come back up.
D. Peer link fails, and subsequently, the primary switch fails.
Answer: B
Question: 10
A customer is deploying FCoE in its network and has found that the connected host does not support FIP. Which command will be useful in troubleshooting this issue?
A. show platform fcoe_mgr info interface vfc id
B. show platform fcoe_mgr info software interface vfc id
C. show platform software fcoe_mgr info interface vfc id
D. show platform software interface fcoe_mgr info vfc id
Answer: C
Question: 11
A customer is troubleshooting FCoE in its network. They have discovered that vFC is currently down and there is no active STP port state on the bound Ethernet interface. What should the STP port state be to correct this issue?
A. The bound interface should be in an STP forwarding state for the native VLAN only.
B. The bound interface should be in an STP learning state for both the native VLAN and the member FCoE VLAN that is mapped to the active VSAN.
C. The bound interface should be in an STP forwarding state for both the native VLAN and the member FCoE VLAN that is mapped to the active VSAN.
D. The bound interface should be in an STP blocking state for both the native VLAN and the member FCoE VLAN that is mapped to the active VSAN.
Answer: C
Question: 12
When configuring LLDP on Cisco Nexus 5548 Switch, what is the purpose of LLDP hold time global configuration command?
A. LLDP holdtime option is to set the length of time in milliseconds that a device should save LLDP information received before discarding it.
B. LLDP holdtime option is to set the length of time in seconds that a device should save LLDP information received before discarding it.
C. LLDP holdtime option is to set the length of time in milliseconds to wait before performing LLDP initialization on any interface.
D. LLDP holdtime option is to set the length of time in seconds to wait before performing LLDP initialization on any interface.
Answer: B
Question: 13
A customer is troubleshooting FCoE in its network and sees pause counters increasing when it runs the command show interface eth1/5. What is the cause of this?
A. The CNA connected to the switch is sending Xon or Xoff PFC frames.
B. The HBA connected to the switch is sending Xon or Xoff PFC frames.
C. Pause counters increase regularly; there is nothing to be concerned about.
D. A firmware upgrade on the Fibre Channel adapter that is connected to the switch will fix this issue.
Answer: A
Question: 14
On a Cisco Nexus 5500 Series Switch, the VFC is stuck in the initializing state. Which QoS statements must be configured for FCoE to operate?
A. system qos
service-policy type qos input fcoe-default-in-policy
service-policy type queuing input fcoe-default-in-policy
service-policy type queuing output fcoe-default-out-policy
service-policy type network-qos fcoe-default-nq-policy
B. system qos
service-policy type qos input fcoe-default-in-policy
service-policy type queuing input fcoe-default-in-policy
service-policy type qos input default-in-policy
service-policy type network-qos default-nq-policy
C. system qos
service-policy type qos input default-in-policy
service-policy type queuing input default-in-policy
service-policy type queuing output default-out-policy
service-policy type network-qos default-nq-policy
D. system qos
service-policy type qos input default-in-policy
service-policy type queuing input default-in-policy
service-policy type queuing output fcoe-default-out-policy
service-policy type network-qos fcoe-default-nq-policy
Answer: A
Question: 15
One of your Cisco Nexus Series interfaces has become errdisabled with the error message "DCX-No ACK in 100 PDUs". How often are these acknowledgements exchanged?
A. 15 seconds
B. 30 seconds
C. 45 seconds
D. 60 seconds
Answer: B
Question: 16
Refer to the exhibit.
What command should you execute next in resolving a lock failure?
A. ntp execute
B. ntp commit
C. ntp lock
D. ntp help
E. ntp detail
Answer: B
400-201 E-Books
Question: 1
Which are two benefits of using segment routing over RSVP-TE for traffic engineering? (Choose two)
A. Segment routing traffic engineering tunnels always follow the low-latency path
B. ECMP-aware traffic engineering is natively supported by segment routing
C. Per-flow state is present only at the ingress node to the Segment routing-enabled network
D. Per-flow state is present at the ingress and egress node to the segment routing-enabled network
E. Per-flow state is maintained on all nodes of the segment routing-enabled network
Answer: B, C
Question: 2
What is one of the functions of a LISP ingress tunnel router?
A. Ability to integrity-check LISP site registration messages using a SHA2-based HMAC algorithm
B. Responsible for finding EID-to-RLOC mappings for all traffic destined for LISP-capable sites
C. Accept encapsulation Map-request messages, decapsulate them to the MS responsible for the ETR authoritative for the requested EIDs
D. Allows EIDs and RLOCs to communicate in a LISP site that contains EIDs in one address family and RLOCs in a different address family
Answer: B
Question: 3
An support engineer has been tasked to protect an ISP infrastructure from the growing number of encrypted DDoS attacks. The solution should also validate the eBGP peering. Which solution accomplishes these goals?
A. BGP FlowSpec
B. BTSH
C. BGP Route Dampening
D. BGP LS
E. RTBH
Answer: E
Question: 4
ISP A provides L2VPN services to Company B through an MPLS network. Company B uses all available CoS values to classify and different traffic forwarding within all Company B sites. ISP A uses the following CoS values to differentiate service classes for the VPN customer traffic
*MPLS EXP 0 for Bronze service class
*MPLS EXP 1 for Silver service class
*MPLS EXP 2 for Gold service class
*Remaining MPLS EXP values for ISP A internal use
ISP A’s policy is to forward VPN customer traffic based only on their Bronze, silver and Gold service classes. Which QoS method must ISP A implement to achieve this?
A. Short-pipe Mode
B. Russian Doll Model
C. Pipe Mode
D. Uniform Mode
E. Maximum Allocation Model
Answer: D
Question: 5
Refer to the exhibit, An engineer is asked to troubleshoot packet drops inside a network which option is true?
A. HTTP traffic originated by the 10.10.10.0/24 subnet uses up to 10% of the interface bandwidth. However, if no congestion is present, no more bandwidth is allocated to HTTP traffic
B. SMTP traffic originated by the 10.10.10.0/24 subnet uses up to 10% of the bandwidth, however, if no congestion is present, more bandwidth is allocated to SMTP traffic
C. SMTP traffic originated by the 10.10.10.0/24 subnet uses up to 10% of the bandwidth. However , if no congestion is present, SMTP traffic above 10% of link bandwidth is dropped
D. HTTP traffic originated by the 10.10.10.0/24 subnet uses up to 10% of the interface bandwidth. However, if congestion is present, less bandwidth is allocated to HTTP traffic
Answer: C
Question: 6
Which are the two limitations of the predefined NAT solution?(Choose two)
A. The Bulk port allocation configuration is not available
B. The global port limit parameter is not available for the predefined mode
C. Only the port-presentation option is available
D. NetFlow and syslog are not supported
E. It cannot be configured for each of the inside VRF instance
Answer: A,B
Question: 7
Which two options are characteristics of MoFRR? ( Choose two)
A. Uses additional PIM join toward source
B. Based on multicast forward error correction feature
C. Based on PIM Fast Route
D. Requires MPLS TE FRR enabled with link protection and node protection
E. Utilizes two equal-cost paths toward source
Answer: A, E
Question: 8
ISP_X has IPv4 only enabled in the MPLS backbone. ISP_X must provide IPv6 services to its customers including IPv6 Internet access. Which IPv6 transition mechanism allows ISP_X to provide IPv6 connected by leveraging the existing MPLS IPv4 core network?
A. 6to4 tunnels
B. NAT444
C. 6PE
D. NAT64
E. 6RD
F. DS Lite
Answer: A
Question: 9
What ISIS TLVs are used to support MPLS traffic Engineering? ( Choose three)
A. TLV 22 Extended IS neighbor
B. TLV 10 Authentication Information
C. TLV 134 Router ID
D. TLV 132 IP interface Address
E. TLV 128 IP Internal Reachability
F. TLV 135 IS Reachability
Answer: A, C, F
Question: 10
Refer to the exhibit. All links have same bandwidth configured AS 4, AS 4 and AS 7 run OSPF as IGP using default metric values. Which two statements are correct in regards to MSDP SA messages received by R5 located in AS 7? ( Choose two)
A. All MSDP SA messages from R1 and R2 via R4 will be dropped
B. All MSDP SA messages from R1 and R2 via R3 will be accepted
C. All MSDP SA messages from R1 and R2 via R3 will be dropped
D. All MSDP SA messages from R1 and R2 via R3 will be dropped and all MSDP SA messages from R2 via R4 will be dropped
E. All MSDP SA messages from R1 and R2 via R4 will be accepted
F. All MSDP SA messages from R1 via R3 will be accepted and all MSDP SA messages from R2 Via R4 will be accepted
Answer: A, B
Question: 11
REP has been deployed in a segment. A network operations engineer notices that a segment port does not become operational. What is the root cause of this issue?
A. A neighbor is using a different port ID
B. A local port is in alternate port state
C. A neighbor port is in blocked state
D. More than one neighbor has the same segment ID
Answer: D
Question: 12
In MPLS-enabled networks, which two improvements does EVPN provide compared to traditional VPLS solutions? (Choose two)
A. use of BGP as a control-plane protocol
B. use of LDP to allocate EVPN-related labels
C. optimized learning and flooding process
D. leveraging of enhanced VFIs to provide greater scalability
E. per-flow load balancing
F. no need for exchange of MAC reachability between PEs
Answer: C, E
Question: 13
An operation engineer from AS 2000 must deploy this inbound routing policy:
*Based on RFC 1998, modify the local-preference value for prefixes containing BGP community values 2000:90 and 2000:110
*Strip any BGP community of the BGP prefixes received from customers that are in the range between 2000:1 and 2000:2000. Any other BGP community values must not be removed
*Apply 2000:1003 BGP community Value, which indicates that the BGP prefix is learned form a customer
Which configuration accomplishes this BGP routing policy?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: C
Question: 14
Which protocol provides fast link failure detection for all type of encapsulation?
A. Prefix Independent Convergence
B. Carrier delay
C. Non stop forwarding
D. Bidirectional forwarding detection
Answer: D
Question: 15
Which option is the benefit of per-link LFA over per-prefix LFA?
A. It has a greater applicability
B. It provides greater protection coverage
C. It is simpler
D. It enables better bandwidth utilization
Answer: C
Question: 16
A service provider has deployed new PEs using nV Edge technology based on Cisco ASR 9000 routers. How does the system mitigate against a split-brain state if all control plane and data plane links are lost?
A. The chassis located in the second rack automatically shuts down and only the first rack chassis stays operational
B. Both chassis stay online operating as two different PEs
C. The two chassis send keepalive packets over any layer 2 cloud. The non-DSC chassis shuts down itself after it has received these additional keepalive packets
D. Both chassis stop receiving and forwarding data traffic until the control plane and data plane links are brought back up
Answer: B
Question: 17
What is MPLS VPN component used by Multi-VRF solution?
A. Route target community
B. Route distinguisher
C. Default MDT
D. VPN forwarding
Answer: B
Question: 18
Which two characteristics of GMPLS are true? (Choose two)
A. The LSP is established directionally through only one signaling messages
B. The control channel can terminate on different nodes types that the bearer channels span
C. OXCs manipulate wavelengths that bear the label implicitly
D. Two lights paths traversing the same fiber link can share the same wavelength on that link
E. LMP can be used by the natively photonic switches network element type only
Answer: A, C
Question: 19
What is the main goal of the incident management?
A. Restore a normal service operation as quickly as possible
B. Create possible workarounds for issues that might recur
C. Enable the cursor to report issues
D. Ensure that the same incident does not recur
Answer: A
Question: 20
Which mechanism protects the control and management planes of a cisco IOS device to maintain routing stability, network reachability, and packet delivery?
A. RTBH
B. BGP Flow Spec
C. MQC CLI
D. CPPr
E. NetFlow
Answer: D
Question: 21
Which description of the Russian Doll Model is true?
A. RDM provides bandwidth sharing while providing bandwidth isolation and protection against QoS degradation, and also provides service differentiation for high-priority, normal-priority and best-effort priority services
B. RDM matches simple bandwidth control policies setting individual bandwidth constraint for a given class type and simultaneously limit the aggregate of reserved bandwidth across all class types
C. RDM can be used simultaneously to ensure bandwidth efficiency and to protect against QoS degradation of all class types, whether preemption is used or not
D. RDM guarantees a predefined amount of bandwidth for each type and at the same time allows the bandwidth sharing by defining two pools for every class type: private pool (guaranteed bandwidth) and common pool (bandwidth shared between all class types)
Answer: C
Question: 22
In the MVPN profile 3 ( Rosen GRE with BGP-AS), which information is included inside of the opaque value?
A. Type 2- Root Address: VPN-ID; 0-n
B. Type 1-source-PE: Global-ID
C. RD:S,G
D. Not applicable for this profile
Answer: D
Question: 23
Which three IS-IS TLVs floods the MPLS TE resource allocation information through the network?
(Choose three)
A. Traffic engineering router ID
B. Extended IP reachability
C. IS TE reachability
D. RSVP
E. Extended IS reachability
F. Opaque
Answer: A, B, E
Question: 24
Refer to the exhibit. Why is router 1 unable to ping 10.10.100.2 from vrf cust1?
A. Because Multi-VRF support is not enabled
B. Because address-family ipv4 is missing from the VRF statement
C. Because of an incorrect interface configuration
D. Because of a missing BGP configuration
Answer: B
Question: 25
A network engineer is configuring a POS interface on Cisco router running a cisco IOS Software. The POS interface must permit logging of payload label and C2 mismatch SONET/SDN alarms. Which option is the correct configuration?
Interface pos<number>
Pos report pplm
A. Interface pos<number>
Pos report all
B. Interface pos<number>
Pos report encap
C. Interface pos<number>
Pos report ppdi
D. Interface pos<number>
Pos report ptim
Answer: A
Question: 26
SNMPv3 provides which three security features?(Choose three)
A. DES 56-bit encryption
B. Encrypted user password
C. Private community information that is exchanged out-of-band
D. Device hostname that is authenticated via AES algorithm
E. Message integrity
F. Authentication that is based on MD5 or SHA algorithms
Answer: A, E, F
400-101 Free Demo Practice Test Software
Question: 1
Which three parameters must match to establish OSPF neighbor adjacency? (Choose three.)
A. the process ID
B. the hello interval
C. the subnet mask
D. authentication
E. the router ID
F. the OSPF interface priority
Answer: B C D
Question: 2
Which statement is true about LLDP?
A. LLDP provides VTP support.
B. LLDP does not use a multicast address to communicate.
C. LLDP can indicate only the duplex setting of a link, and not the speed capabilities.
D. LLDP does not support native VLAN indication.
Answer: D
Question: 3
The OSPF adjacency between two routers cannot be established. What is the root cause of the problem?
A. Both routers are designated routers.
B. different area ID
C. mismatched OSPF network types
D. authentication error
E. area type mismatch
Answer: E
Question: 4
What are two of the commands that you can enter to gracefully shut down OSPF and notify neighbors?(Choose two)
A. router(config-if)# ip ospf graceful shutdown
B. router(config-if)# ip ospf shutdown
C. router(config-router)# shutdown
D. router(config-router)# graceful shutdown
E. router(config)# ip notify
Answer: B C
Question: 5
What are two of the commands that you can enter to gracefully shut down OSPF and notify neighbors?(Choose two)
A. router(config-if)# ip ospf graceful shutdown
B. router(config-if)# ip ospf shutdown
C. router(config-router)# shutdown
D. router(config-router)# graceful shutdown
E. router(config)# ip notify
Answer: B C
Question: 6
A packet from network 10.0.1.0/24 destined for network 10.0.2.0/24 arrives at Rl on interface GiO/0, but the router drops the packet instead of transmitting it out interface Gi0/1.
Which feature that is configured on R1 can cause this problem?
A. UDLC
B. split horizon
C. uRPF
D. spanning tree
Answer: C
Question: 7
Which three service offer VLAN transparency for WAN Ethernet services? (Choose three)
A. ERMS
B. EPL
C. ERS
D. MPLS
E. EMS
F. EWS
Answer: BEF
Question: 8
What are two mechanisms that directed ARP uses to help resolve IP addresses to hardware addresses? (Choose two)
A. It removes address-resolution restrictions, allowing dynamic protocols to advertise rou information for the device loopback address.
B. It uses ICMP redirects to advertise next-hop addresses to foreign hosts
C. It uses series of ICMP echo messages to relay next-hop addresses.
D. It removes address-resolution restrictions, allowing dynamic protocols to advertise routing information for the next-hop address.
E. t uses a proxy mechanism to allow a device to respond to ARP requests for the addresses of other devices
Answer: BD
Question: 9
Exhibit:
Your network is suffering excessive output drops. Which two actions can you take to resolve the problem? (Choose two.)
A. Install a switch with larger buffers.
B. Configure a different queue set.
C. Reconfigure the switch buffers.
D. Configure the server application to use TCP.
E. Update the server operating system.
Answer: A B
Question: 10
Which two statements about DMVPN with NHRP are true? (Choose two)
A. NHRP shortens the configuration of the hub router.
B. NHRP dynamically provides information about the spoke routers to the hub.
C. NHRP disables multicast
D. The hub router uses NHRP to initiate the GRE tunnel with spokes.
E. The spoke routers act as the NHRP servers.
Answer: A B
Question: 11
Which two statements about private VLAN communications are true? (Choose two)
A. Primary VLAN traffic is passed across trunk interfaces.
B. Isolated ports communicate with other isolated ports.
C. Promiscuous ports communicate with all other ports.
D. Promiscuous ports connect only to routers.
Answer: A C
Question: 12
Which command can you use to redistribute IBGP routes into the IGP?
A. no synchronization
B. redistribute protocol process-number
C. bgp redistribute-internal
D. synchronization
Answer: C
Question: 13
Which two statements about VPLS are true? (Choose two)
A. The service provider provisions CE devices.
B. It transmits broadcast traffic more efficiently than Ethernet switches.
C. It uses broadcast replication to transmit Ethernet packets with multicast MAC addresses.
D. It enables CE devices to operate as part of an L3 VPN.
E. It enables CE devices on different networks to operate as if they were in the same LAN.
F. It enables PE and CE devices to operate as if they were routing neighbors.
Answer: C E
Question: 14
Which two services are used to transport Layer 2 frames across a packet-switched network? (Choose two.)
A. Frame Relay
B. ATM
C. AToM
D. L2TPv3
Answer: C D
Question: 15
Exhibit:
Which option describes the meaning of this console message?
A. An EIGRP hold timer has expired.
B. FastEthernetO/O has interface errors.
C. An EIGRP process has been shut down.
D. An interface has gone down.
Answer: C
Question: 16
Which two statements about Cisco Express Forwarding are true? (Choose two)
A. The FIB table and the adjacency table reside on the line cards when distributed Cisco Express Forwarding is enabled.
B. Layer 2 next-hop address information is maintained in the adjacency table.
C. The FIB table and the adjacency table reside on the line cards when Cisco Express Forwarding is enabled.
D. Layer 2 next-hop address information is maintained in the FIB table.
E. The FIB table resides on the route processor and the adjacency table resides on the line cards when Cisco Express Forwarding is enabled.
Answer: A B
Question: 17
When is it useful to disable split horizon on an EIGRP interface?
A. Disable it when you want to provide additional backup paths in your network.
B. Disable it when you want to send routes that are learned from another routing protocol to peer on the same interface.
C. Disable it when you need to send updates to peers on the interface on which the updates were received.
D. It is never advisable to disable split horizon on an EIGRP interface.
Answer: C
Question: 18
Which two statements about RIPng are true? (Choose two)
A. IPv6 can support as many as 8 equal-cost routes.
B. IPv6 can support as many as 32 equal-cost routes.
C. A route with a metric of 15 is advertised as unreachable.
D. Both inbound and outbound route filtering can be implemented on a single interface.
E. 16 is the maximum metric it can advertise.
Answer: D E
Question: 19
Which two statements about TCP MSS are true? (Choose two.)
A. The two endpoints in a TCP connection report their MSS values to one another.
B. It operates at Layer 3.
C. MSS values are sent in TCP SYN packets
D. It sets the maximum amount of data that a host sends in an individual datagram
E. It sets the minimum amount of data that a host accepts in an individual datagram
Answer: CD
Question: 20
which three statements about automatic 6to4 tunneling are true?(choose three)
A. It allows an IPV6 domain to be connected over an IPV4 network
B. 6to4 tunnels are configured only in a point-point configuration
C. It allows an IPV4 domain to be connected over an IPV6 network
D. The IPV4 address embedded into the IPV6 address is used to find other of the tunnel
E. The MAC address embedded into the IPV6 address is used to find the other end of the tunnel
F. 6to4 tunnels are configured in a point-to-mulitipoint configuration
Answer: A D F
Question: 21
Which two statements about OSPF route filtering are true? (Choose two)
A. It can be based on the source router ID
B. It can be based on the external route tag.
C. It affects LSA flooding.
D. It can be based on the as-path.
E. It can be based on distance-
Answer: A B
Question: 22
Which two statements about asymmetric routing are true? (Choose two)
A. It can cause packet loss over stateful ICMP and UDP connections
B. It can cause packet loss when a stateful firewall is in use.
C. It can cause TCP connections to close.
D. It can cause packet loss when NAT is in use.
E. It is uncommon in large networks.
Answer: B D
Question: 23
Which two statements about IS-IS metrics are true?(choose two)
A. The default metric style is narrow
B. The default metric for the IS-IS interface is 63
C. The default metric style is wide
D. The default metric for the IS-IS interface is 64
E. The default metric for the IS-IS interface is 10
Answer: A E
Question: 24
Which two pieces of information are returned by the show ipv6 mid snooping querier command? (Choose two)
A. Learned group information
B. IPv6 address information
C. MLD snooping querier configuration
D. incoming interface
Answer: B D
Question: 25
Which three statements about microbursts are true? (choose three)
A. They can occur when chunks of data are sent in quick succession
B. They occur only with UDP traffic
C. They appear as input errors on an interface counter
D. They appear as ignores and overruns on device buffers
E. They can be monitored by IOS software
F. They appear as misses and failures on device buffers
Answer: A D E
MB2-713 PDF Download
Question: 1
You create a personal view.
l
What are two possible ways to achieve the goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Email the F etch xml file.
B. Share the view.
C. Email a link from the Advanced Find ribbon.
D. Assign the view.
Answer: BD
Question: 2
You have B Dynamics CRM organization that uses Microsoft Social Engagement
You need to analyze the sales pipeline and the Social sentiment to watch for social trends that affect sales.
What should you do?
A. Configure a link to CRM in Microsoft Social Engagement, and then build an interactive dashboard.
B. Build a dashboard that has a chart for the pipeline and a widget from Microsoft Social Engagement.
C. Build a multi-stream dashboard that has a global filter.
D. Configure a link to CRM in Microsoft Social Engagement, and then build a personal view.
Answer: A
Question: 3
You have a Dynamic CRM organization that has more than 700 active goals.
At the end of each year, your company reevaluates each goal.
You need to identify which value of the goals must be configured manually.
Which value should you identity?
A. Actual
B. target
C. Rollup Query - Actual
D. In-Progress
E. Rollup Query - In Process
Answer: A
Question: 4
You need to create a goal that will show the previous seven days of activity.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. close the goal after seven days.
B. Add a filter
C. Set the Goal period as a Custom Period.
D. Add a rollup field.
E. Add a rollup query.
Answer: AC
Question: 5
You work for a company named » Fabrikam, Inc.
Fabrikam is acquired by a company named Contoso, Ltd. Both companies have different fiscal year ends.
The sales team at Fabrikam will be required to use a new fiscal year end at the end of the current quarter.
The Dynamics CRM administrator at Fabrikam updates the Fiscal Year Settings immediately.
You need to ensure that reports on if>.- goals use the Fabrikam year and until the end of the quartet
What should you do?
A. Run the Align with Fiscal Period action immediately.
B. Recalculate the goals.
C. Run the Align w.th Fiscal Period action after the quarter ends.
D. Create new goals for the old fiscal period.
Answer: A
Question: 6
You have Dynamics CRM organization that has 50,000 contacts in regions around the world.
Your job is to review the records of the contacts from three regions. The contacts in the three regions are managed by different account managers. You work with only one of the regions per day, updating the address information of the contacts in that region.
You need to view only the contacts from a specific region.
What should you do?
A. Follow the contact records.
B. Add access teams.
C. Create a dashboard.
D. Create personal views.
Answer: D
Question: 7
You plan to export sales data that will be used in the annual report of your company. You need to provide a copy of some of the sales data to the company stakeholders. Which format can you use to export the data?
A. Adobe PDF
B. Microsoft Word
C. Microsoft PowerPoint
D. Microsoft Visio
Answer: A
Question: 8
You are reviewing the sales pipeline of your Dynamics CRM organization. You need to identify which type of data is contained in the sales pipeline. What should you identify?
A. the combined estimated revenue of all active quotes
B . the combined estimated revenue of all open leads
C. the combined estimated revenue of all open opportunities
D. the combined estimated revenue of all open orders
Answer: C
Question: 9
You have 20 sales representatives who each has a monthly goal that measures the number of phone calls made to their 10 key customers. The managers of the sale representatives want you to add parent goals that track this activity over the next three weeks for an internal competition.
You need to use a parent goal to track the team score, and child goals to track the individual secures.
Which two of configurations should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. new child goals that all use the same rollup queries.
B. Change the parent goal of each child goal.
C. Create a parent goal that has a custom period of three weeks from today
D. Change the manager of each child goal
E. Change the goal manager of each child goat.
Answer: CD
Question: 10
You manager needs to view a collection of data records and a chart of the data records simultaneously. What should you instruct the manager to do?
A. Define a view and add a chart
B. Export the Fetch XML. and then import a chart.
C. Run the Report Wizard.
D. Create a personal report.
Answer: C
HPE0-S46 Exam Dumps
Question: 1
An architect has designed an HPE BladeSystem with Flex-10D Virtual Connect that connects to HPE 5830 switches. The architect needs to ensure that the solution simplifies the customer’s campus Ethernet.
Which additional HPE technology should the architect recommend to the customer?
A. Intelligent Resilient Framework (IRF)
B. Shortest Path Bridge Mac in Mac (SPBM)
C. Fiber Channel over Ethernet (FCoE)
D. RDMA over Converged Ethernet (RoCE)
Answer: C
Question: 2
A customer needs to deploy SAP HAN
A. The customer needs a scale-out solution to accommodate an increase in workload over the next two years.
Which ProLiant series should the architect recommend to the customer?
A. HPE ProLiant 300
B. HPE ProLiant 100
C. HPE ProLiant BladeSystem
D. HPE ProLiant 500
Answer: C
Question: 3
Which tool should an architect use to research the technical specifications of various Smart Array controllers?
A. HPE Product Bulletin
B. SalesBuilder for Windows
C. ProposalWeb
D. HPE iQuote
Answer: A
Question: 4
A customer needs to improve the performance of a CPU intensive application running on an HPE ProLiant DL 360 Gen9 server with an Intel Xeon E5 processors. The architect proposes to add an Intel Phi coprocessor extensions to the server.
What should an architect verify to ensure the coprocessor will improve application performance?
A. that the application is able to work in a clustered environment
B. that the application is highly parallel, and can scale to more than one hundred threads
C. that the server is connected with a 40Gb/s network interface card
D. that the server has a minimum of 24 GB ECC-capable RAM installed
Answer: B
Question: 5
How does the HPE BladeSystem architecture meet the changing needs of data center customers?
A. introduction of Active Health System monitor
B. system management using HPE Virtual Connect modules
C. enables customers to shift investment from maintenance to innovation
D. consolidate deployment of firmware via HPE Agentless Management
Answer: B
Question: 6
A customer has a ProLiant DL based server solution. The customer is experiencing high write latency with its virtual desktop infrastructure running on this solution.
Which solution will increase the application performance and reduce the use of resources?
A. Upgrade the current processor to the E5-4800 v5 processor
B. Add a PCIe Worload Accelerator
C. Migrate to PCIe Solid State Drives
D. Upgrade memory to 2133 MHz DDR4
Answer: B
Explanation:
The IO Accelerator is an advanced storage device that uses solid state storage technology directly on the PCI bus, assuring high read and write data rates and accelerated application performance. The associated application performance improvements will have a positive impact on business results and the ability to make decisions quickly, resulting in significant cost and time savings.
E20-526 Study Guides
Question: 1
When using the XtremIO PoC Toolkit, what is the purpose of the Age phase?
A. Continuously write to a specific range of logical block addresses to test Flash durability
B. Overwrite each LUN multiple times to ensure they contain all unique data
C. Test the performance of the All-Flash array with non-production static data
D. Scatter writes across the entire array to simulate ordinary use of the system
Answer: D
Explanation:
Proceed with filesystem aging by doing random overwrite cycles.
Question: 2
A user attempts to create a quorum disk for a host cluster. Volume parameters are:
However, the volume creation fails. What caused the process to fail?
A. Quorum disks cannot have an 8kB block size
B. Volume size is too small
C. Volume name is invalid
D. XtremIO volumes cannot be quorum disks
Answer: B
Explanation:
The volume size must be specified in MB, GB, TB, and not in KB.
Question: 3
You have been asked to design an XtremIO storage array solution that will be used for two large applications workloads. One overload will generate approximately 150,000 write IOPs with an average 4 kB I/O size. The second write workload will have an average I/O size of 128 kB and will generate approximately 2 GB/s of throughput.
At a minimum, how many X-Bricks are needed in a single cluster to meet this requirement?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
Answer: A
Explanation:
Second write workload IOPS = 2 GB/s divided by 128 kB = 2 x1,073,741,824 / (128 x 1,024) = 16384 IOPs.
Total IOPS required would be 150,000, from the first workload, plus 16384, totaling 166384.
A 2 X-Brick cluster provides 300K Read/write IOPS so it would be adequate.
Storage capacity and performance scale linearly, such that two X-Bricks supply twice the IOPS, four X-Bricks supply four times the IOPS, six X-Bricks supply six times the IOPS and eight X-Bricks supply eight times the IOPS of the single X-Brick configuration.
Note: Choose an EMC XtremIO system and scale out linearly by adding more XtremIO X-Bricks.
Question: 4
How can REST API commands be run to manage and monitor an XtremIO cluster?
A. From the REST API CLI built into each X-Brick
B. From the REST API GUI built into each X-Brick
C. From a third-party GUI
D. From the REST API tab in the XMS GUI
Answer: C
Explanation:
The XtremIO's RESTful API allows HTTPS-based interface for automation, orchestration, query and provisioning of the system. With the API, third party applications can be used to control and fully administer the array.
Normally you would access the API using some form of programming/scripting language, such as Python or Perl. However for the purposes of learning or testing concepts there are a number of tools that work better, such as HTTPRrequester and curl.
* Curl is a command-line tool that exists in all Linux distributions, and is available for most other Unix OSes as well as Windows.
To use curl to access XtremIO you’ll need to pass it a few options, such as the username/password to access the array (any valid account on the XtremIO XMS will work), the URL of the API, and potentially a few options such as -k to tell curl not to validate the SSL certificate (presuming you don’t have a valid certificate installed), and -s (silent) to stop curl displaying it’s progress as it downloads the response.
* HTTPRequester is a browser extension that is available for both Chrome and Firefox.
As with for curl, you’ll need to provide a username/password, which is done by clicking on the “Authentication…” box, which adds two boxes below the URL for the username and the password.
References:https://blog.docbert.org/using-the-xtremio-rest-api-part-1/
Question: 5
How should a storage administrator navigate to different XtremIO clusters from the XMS GUI if the administrator has more than one cluster managed by the same XMS?
A. Click the Cluster Name on the Menu bar near the top of the screen
B. Click the Inventory List button on the Menu bar
C. Click the Administration tab and locate the Cluster Name
D. Click the Cluster Name on the Status bar at the bottom of the screen
Answer: B
Explanation:
From the menu bar, the Inventory icon is to be clicked to display the Inventory workspace. This workspace takes the place of the Hardware workspace in earlier versions of the XtremIO GUI. With the All Clusters tab selected, we can see a list of all the hardware elements in the managed clusters.
Note: With time, additional clusters can be added to a deployed XMS. In addition, a cluster can be easily moved from one XMS to another. All management interfaces (GUI/CLI/REST) offer inherent multi-cluster management capabilities. Multiple cluster management is supported from version 4.0 and up.
References:
MB2-711Preparation Material
Question: 1
You are the primary technical resource for an enterprise deployment of Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 on-premises that has 300 seats.
You are asked about hardware requirements for Microsoft SQL Server.
You need to make the appropriate recommendation.
What are the hardware requirements for SQL Server for this organization?
A. Dual-core x64 architecture 1.5 GHz processor, 4 GB RAM. and SAS RAID 0 hard disk array
B. Dual-core x64 architecture 1.5 GHz processor, 4 GB RAM. and SAS RAID 5 hard disk array
C. Intel Xeon Phi Coprocessors, 64-GB RAM, and PCI Express Solid State Storage
D. Quad-core x64 architecture 2 GHz AMD Opteron processor. 16-GB RAM, and SAS RAID 5 hard disk array
Answer: A
Question: 2
Your organization uses Microsoft Exchange Online and you deploy Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 on-premises. You need to synchronize records between the Microsoft Dynamics CRM Server and Exchange Online. What is the supported synchronization method for this scenario?
A. folder-level tracking
B. Email Router
C. smart matching
D. server-side synchronization
Answer: C
Question: 3
Which service can you categorize as a Back End Server role?
A. Email Integration Service
B. Help Server
C. Volume Shadow Copy Service (VSS) Writer service
D. Deployment Web Service
Answer: D
Question: 4
You are the primary technical resource for a Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 on-premises installation. While completing the discovery phase, you find that the domain is running directory service forest and domain functional level of Windows Server 2003.
When you report your findings, you are informed that the organization is running legacy applications and could not upgrade functional levels when they began upgrading their servers several years ago. They understand that the software vendor has made updates and will investigate if new domain service functional levels are supported.
You need to inform them of the minimally supported Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) functional level for Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 on-premises.
What is the minimally supported AD DS functional level?
A. Windows Server 2003 R2
B. Windows Server 2008
C. Windows Server 2008 R2
D. Windows Server 2012
Answer: A
Question: 5
Which two operating systems are supported for Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Windows Server 2012 R2 Datacenter Edition
B. Windows Server 2012 R2 Essentials Edition
C. Windows Server 2012 Foundation Edition
D. Windows Server 2012 Standard Edition
Answer: AD
Question: 6
You review the browsers available on client machines for a Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 installation.
There are:
• 47 Windows 7 devices with Internet Explorer 9.
• 17 Apple devices with the latest version of Safari.
• 5 Google Chromebooks with the latest version of Chrome.
• 105 Windows 7 systems with the latest version of Mozilla Firefox.
You need to determine the number of browsers that will need an upgrade to support the Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 web client
How many web browsers will need an upgrade?
A. 5
B. 17
C. 47
D. 105
Answer: C
Question: 7
You are performing a full server Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 setup on a server named CRM01. You will use a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 Enterprise. 64-bit SP1 named SQL01 for the setup.
If not already installed, which three components will be installed during the setup? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. SQL Server Reporting Services in SQL01
B. Internet Information Services (IIS) in CRM01
C. Windows PowerShell in CRM01
D. CRMAppPool Internet Information Services (IIS) application pool in CRM01
E. SQLAccessGroup in Active Directory
Answer: CDE
Question: 8
You manage a Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 on-premises installation.
You need to determine what is gained by installing Microsoft Dynamics CRM Reporting Extensions.
What are three benefits of installing the Microsoft Dynamics CRM Reporting Extensions? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Reports authored in Transact-SQL are translated to Fetch XML
B. Removes the need to configure trust for delegation
C. Enables the use of SharePoint mode in SQL Reporting Services
D. Support for fetch-based reports
E. Allows you to create or import an organization
Answer: ADE
Question: 9
You are installing the Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 Email Router.
Which two operating systems are supported? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Windows Vista 64-bit
B. Windows 7 32-bit
C. Windows Server 2008 R2 64-bit
D. Windows Server 2012 64-bit
Answer: BC
Question: 10
Your organization decides to install Microsoft Dynamics CRM on-premises in North America and uses Microsoft Dynamics CRM Online to support its European operations. You will need to share customizations including report definitions.
You need to be able to share report definitions between both the North American and European operations.
What should you consider when sharing report definitions between an on-premises installation and an Online installation?
A. You must install the Microsoft Dynamics CRM Reporting Extensions when creating the re
B. Reports must be created using Transact-SQL
C. Reports must be created using Fetch XML
D. You must use Microsoft Power BI for all reports.
Answer: C
JN0-102 Preparation Kits
Question: 1
The IP address 10.1.1.1 belongs to which class of IP address space?
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D
Answer: A
Question: 2
For the interface ge-1/2/3.4, what does "ge" represent?
A. SONET/SDH
B. Gigabit Ethernet
C. Aggregated Ethernet
D. GRE
Answer: B
Question: 3
Which word starts a command to display the operational status of a Junos device?
A. put
B. set
C. show
D. get
Answer: C
Question: 4
Which command prompt indicates that you are in operational mode?
A. user@router&
B. user@router#
C. user@router%
D. user@router>
Answer: D
Question: 5
What is the decimal equivalent of 00000100?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 9
D. 12
Answer: B
Question: 6
What is a valid IPv6 address?
A. 00:05:85:23:45:67
B. 127.0.0.1
C. 2001:0db8:3000:2215:0000:0000:aaaa:1111
D. 49.0001.0192.0168.1001.00
Answer: C
Question: 7
Which simplified IPv6 address is the same as the IP address 2001:0000:1000:0000:0000:cbff:0020:0001/64?
A. 2001::1::cbff:2:0001/64
B. 2001::1000::cbff:20:1/64
C. 2001:0:1000::cbff:20:1/64
D. 2001:0:1:0:0:cbff:2:1/64
Answer: C
Question: 8
What are three characteristics of UDP? (Choose three.)
A. UDP is faster than TCP.
B. UDP operates at the Transport Layer.
C. UDP is connection-oriented.
D. UDP data is sent best-effort.
E. UDP is more reliable than TCP.
Answer: A, B, D
Question: 9
Which layer in the OSI model is responsible for translating frames into bits?
A. Application Layer
B. Presentation Layer
C. Data Link Layer
D. Physical Layer
Answer: C
Question: 10
Which layer in the TCP/IP model is responsible for delivering packets to their destination?
A. Application Layer
B. Transport Layer
C. Internet Layer
D. Network Access Layer
Answer: C
Question: 11
Why is IPv6 packet processing more effective than IPv4 packet processing?
A. fixed header size
B. smaller header size
C. fewer header fields
D. variable header size
Answer: A
Question: 12
A user opens a webpage that requires the transmission of packets from the Web server to the client's browser. The packets transmitted from the Web server to the client exceed the smallest MTU value on the communications path.
Which two protocol functions allow this type of communication? (Choose two.)
A. packet segmentation
B. serialized checking
C. packet sequencing
D. parallel checking
Answer: A, C
Question: 13
Which two statements are true about TCP communication? (Choose two.)
A. The receiver acknowledges the final packet in each communications stream.
B. The receiver adds sequencing numbers to the packets received.
C. The sender adds sequencing numbers to the packets it sends.
D. The receiver acknowledges each packet it receives from the sending device.
Answer: A, C
Question: 14
Which two statements are true about optical networks? (Choose two.)
A. SONET and SDH both use time-division multiplexing.
B. An optical transport network system uses time-division multiplexing.
C. SONET and SDH both use wavelength-division multiplexing.
D. An optical transport network system uses wavelength-division multiplexing.
Answer: A, D
Question: 15
At which layer of the OSI model does error checking occur with IPv6?
A. Layer 2
B. Layer 3
C. Layer 4
D. Layer 7
Answer: C
Question: 16
Which statement is correct regarding IPv6 addresses?
A. An IPv6 address consists of 128 bits separated into eight 16-bit hexadecimal sections.
B. An IPv6 address consists of 64 bits separated into four 16-bit hexadecimal sections.
C. An IPv6 address consists of 128 bits separated into sixteen 8-bit hexadecimal sections.
D. An IPv6 address consists of 64 bits separated into eight 8-bit hexadecimal sections.
Answer: A
Question: 17
Which two statements about MPLS label-switched paths (LSPs) are true? (Choose two.)
A. LSPs are bidirectional.
B. LSPs are unidirectional.
C. LSPs must follow the IGP's shortest path.
D. LSPs can follow paths other than the IGP's shortest path.
Answer: B, D
Question: 18
What are two ways that packet fragmentation is handled differently between IPv6 and IPv4? (Choose two.)
A. End hosts determine the path MTU for IPv6.
B. End hosts determine the path MTU for IPv4.
C. Packet fragmentation occurs at intermediate nodes for IPv4.
D. Packet fragmentation occurs at intermediate nodes for IPv6.
Answer: A, C
Question: 19
-- Exhibit --
user@router> show route protocol static
inet.0: 15 destinations, 15 routes (15 active, 0 holddown, 0 hidden)
+ = Active Route, - = Last Active, * = Both
99.0.0.0/17 *[Static/5] 00:00:11
>to 10.1.1.2 via ge-0/0/1.0
99.0.0.0/19 *[Static/5] 00:00:11
>to 10.1.2.2 via ge-0/0/2.0
99.0.0.0/24 *[Static/5] 00:00:11
>to 10.1.3.2 via ge-0/0/3.0
99.0.0.0/26 *[Static/5] 00:00:11
>to 10.1.4.2 via ge-0/0/4.0
-- Exhibit --
In the exhibit, there are four static routes that route traffic through different interfaces.
Which interface does the router use if traffic is sent to the 99.0.0.1 destination?
A. ge-0/0/1
B. ge-0/0/2
C. ge-0/0/3
D. ge-0/0/4
Answer: D
C9010-262 Latest Certification Tests
Question: 1
A customer recently purchased a Power E870 that includes redundant Service Processors, and would like to implement dual HMCs.
What does IBM’s Best Practice documentation recommend?
A. Each HMC should be connected to both Service Processors on a separate private network.
B. The HMCs should share the same DHCP range.
C. Each HMC should be managed by PowerVC
D. The HMCs should use the same subnet to connect to the service processors.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Using a redundant HMC configuration with your service processor setup requires a specific port configuration, as shown in the figure below.
The HMC’s first Ethernet port, eth0, should be configured to be a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server over a private network.
References: IBM Power Systems HMC Implementation and Usage Guide (April 2013), page 43
http://www.redbooks.ibm.com/redbooks/pdfs/sg247491.pdf
Question: 2
A customer purchased a new E870. They would like to implement Linux-based infrastructure solutions such as:
Which of the following will help to establish a proof of concept implementation for these applications?
A. PowerCare
B. PowerVC Manager
C. PowerVM
D. Power POC Redbook
Answer: C
Explanation:
The PowerVM hypervisor supports multiple operating environments on a single system. Live AIX, Linux and IBM i VMs can be moved between servers, eliminating planned downtime.
References: http://www-03.ibm.com/systems/power/software/virtualization/features.html
Question: 3
Which of the following RAS features is always enabled and functional on an E870 / E880, regardless of configuration?
A. System auto-restart
B. Dynamic Processor Sparing
C. Dynamic Memory Sparing
D. Processor Instruction Retry
Answer: D
Processor Instruction Retry allows the system to recover from soft faults that otherwise result in outages of applications or the entire server.
Note: Within the processor core, soft error events might occur that interfere with the various computation units. When such an event can be detected before a failing instruction is completed, the processor hardware might be able to try the operation again by using the advanced RAS feature that is known as Processor Instruction Retry.
References:
Question: 4
Which of the following is a feature in PowerVM?
A. Hard capping of virtual machines
B. Processor Micro-Threading
C. Active Memory Expansion
D. SR-IOV adapter support
Answer: A
Explanation:
PowerVM supports Shared processor pools, which have the following benefit:
Processor resources for a group of VMs can be capped, reducing software license costs
References:
Question: 5
Which IBM product is used to build, deploy, and manage infrastructure?
A. PowerVM
B. PowerVP
C. PowerVC Manager
D. PowerSC Manager
Answer: A
PowerVM provides a secure and scalable server virtualization environment for AIX, IBM i and Linux applications built upon the advanced RAS features and leading performance of the Power Systems platform.
Question: 6
Which feature of POWER8 processor-based systems is optimized for big data solutions?
A. 40GbE FCoE adapter
B. PCIe Gen3 I/O Expansion Drawer
C. Memory bandwidth
D. Internal Split Backplane
Answer: C
Explanation:
The Bandwidth of POWER8 is Critical for Big Data Workloads like Spark.
Question: 7
A Power 770 MMD with two CEC enclosures 256GB of memory, and PCIe expansion drawers with SAS disk is being upgraded to a Power E870.
Which of the following is a valid process to leverage the existing client investment and maintain the existing serial number?
A. Remove expansion drawers.Perform an MES upgrade of the memory and processor to POWER8.Migrate disk to the E870 system nodes.
B. Remove expansion drawers.Add EXP24S.Perform an MES upgrade of the memory and processor to POWER8.
C. Migrate expansion drawers.Perform an MES upgrade of the memory and processor to POWER8.
D. Migrate expansion drawers.Migrate disk.Perform an MES upgrade of the memory and processor to POWER8.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The following features that are present on the current system can be moved to the new
system if they are supported in the Power E870 and E880:
Disks (within an EXP24S I/O drawer)
SSDs (within an EXP24S I/O drawer)
PCIe adapters with cables, line cords, keyboards, and displays
Racks
Doors
EXP24S I/O drawers
For POWER7+ processor-based systems that have the Elastic CoD function enabled, you
must reorder the elastic CoD enablement features when placing the upgrade MES order for
the new Power E870 or E880 system to keep the elastic CoD function active. To initiate the
model upgrade, the on/off enablement features should be removed from the configuration file
before the MES order is started. Any temporary use of processors or memory owed to IBM on the existing system must be paid before installing the Power E870 or E880.
References: IBM Power Systems E870 and E880 Technical Overview and Introduction, page 28
http://www.redbooks.ibm.com/redpapers/pdfs/redp5137.pdf
Question: 8
A FlashSystem 840 attaches to a Power E870 via:
A. 16Gb Fibre Channel adapter.
B. 8Gb GX++ adapter.
C. large write cache SAS adapter.
D. Optical CXP converter adapter.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The IBM FlashSystem 840 supports three different protocol interface cards:
References: Implementing IBM FlashSystem 840 (July 2015), page 26
http://www.redbooks.ibm.com/redbooks/pdfs/sg248189.pdf
Question: 9
Which of the following is a benefit of Power Enterprise Pools?
A. Has no restrictions on where or how long cores and memory can be relocated.
B. Provides automatic load balancing based on built in policies enabled in PowerVM.
C. Provides greater flexibility to manage core and memory availability for workloads.
D. Can use a Scale-out system temporarily in certain conditions.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Power Enterprise Pools (PEP) provides the ability to move processor and memory resources from one server to another any time, with no physical movement of hardware, using easy operator commands in HMC. The PEP topology is a set of servers that is entitled to share a set of hardware processor and memory licenses between them. This grouping and sharing allows for fast workload balancing and LPM (Logical Partition Mobility) activity while keeping overall server capital costs lower. One does not have to purchase licenses for all resources on all systems, but instead can purchase fewer licenses overall and move them when needed, to and from servers as their workload requirements rise and fall.
Question: 10
A customer would like to add a second HMC to an environment which consists of multiple POWER7 and POWER8 systems.
Which of the following is a requirement for both HMCs to be able to manage all the systems?
A. Both HMCs must be on the same HMC VLAN.
B. Each HMC must be on a dedicated HMC VLAN.
C. All the POWER7 systems must be at the same firmware level.
D. Both HMCs must be at the same version of HMC Code.
Answer: D
Explanation:
HMC Version 8 can be used for POWER8, POWER7, and POWER6 based servers.
HMC Version 7 can used for POWER7, POWER6 and POWER5 based servers.
References: https://www-304.ibm.com/support/customercare/sas/f/hmcl/home.html
ITILF Coaching Kits
Question: 1
Access management is responsible for implementing policies defined in which process?
A. Service portfolio management
B. Information security management
C. Change management
D. Problem management
Answer: B
Question: 2
What BEST describes the value of service design to the business?
A. It supports the creation of a portfolio of quantified services
B. It reduces total cost of ownership (TCO) of services
C. It improves the control of service assets and configurations
D. It provides quick and effective access to standard services
Answer: B
Question: 3
Third parties responsible for supplying goods or services that are required to deliver IT services is a
description of which stakeholder?
A. External Customers
B. Suppliers
C. Operations
D. External Consultants
Answer: B
Question: 4
What service could include a differentiation as an “excitement factor”?
A. A core service
B. An enabling service
C. A packaged service
D. An enhancing service
Answer: D
Question: 5
What is a characteristic of a process?
A. It requires a specific tool
B. It is performance driven and measureable
C. It provides generic technical skills and resources
D. It does not react to a specific trigger
Answer: B
Question: 6
Which document shows a detailed analysis of business impact and benefits?
A. A return on investment
B. Service level requirements
C. A business case
D. A service level agreement
Answer: C
Question: 7
Which of the following are reasons why ITIL is successful?
1. ITIL is vendor neutral
2. It does not prescribe actions
3. ITIL represents best practice
A. All of the above
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Answer: A
Question: 8
Which of the following is an enabler of best practice?
A. Standards
B. Technology
C. Academic research
D. Internal experience
Answer: B
Question: 9
Which is the correct definition of a customer facing service?
A. One which directly supports the business processes of customers
B. A service that cannot be allowed to fail
C. One which is not covered by a service level agreement
D. A service not directly used by the business
Answer: A
Question: 10
What would you call the groups of people who have an interest in the activities, targets, resources and deliverables from service management?
A. Employers
B. Stakeholders
C. Regulators
D. Accreditors
Answer: B
Question: 11
Why are public frameworks, such as ITIL, attractive when compared to proprietary knowledge?
A. Proprietary knowledge may be difficult to adopt, replicate or transfer since it is often undocumented
B. Public frameworks are always cheaper to adopt
C. Public frameworks are prescriptive and tell you exactly what to do
D. Proprietary knowledge has been tested in a wide range of environments
Answer: A
Question: 12
What should a service always deliver to customers?
A. Applications
B. Infrastructure
C. Value
D. Resources
Answer: C
Question: 13
Which one of the following is NOT a characteristic of a process?
A. It is measurable
B. It delivers specific results
C. It responds to specific events
D. It structures an organization
Answer: D
Question: 14
What are customers of IT services who work in the same organization as the service provider known as?
A. Strategic customers
B. External customers
C. Valued customers
D. Internal customers
Answer: D
Question: 15
Which of the following is best definition of IT service management?
A. An internal service provider that is embedded within a business unit
B. A complete set of all the documentation required to deliver world class services to customers
C. Technical implementation of supporting IT infrastructure components
D. The implementation and management of quality IT services that meet business needs
Answer: D
Question: 16
Which one of the following would NOT be defined as part of every process?
A. Roles
B. Inputs and outputs
C. Functions
D. Metrics
Answer: C
Question: 17
What are customers of IT services who do NOT work in the same organization as the service provider known as?
A. Strategic customers
B. External customers
C. Valued customers
D. Internal customers
Answer: B
Question: 18
What is a service delivered between two business units in the same organization known as?
A. Strategic service
B. Delivered service
C. Internal service
D. External service
Answer: C
Question: 19
What is the act of transforming resources and capabilities into valuable service better known as?
A. Service management
B. Incident management
C. Resource management
D. Service support
Answer: A
Question: 20
Which of the following are sources of best practice?
1. Academic research
2. Internal experience
3. Industry practices
A. All of the above
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Answer: A
99 Sample Practice
Question: 1
When considering risks, which describes an opportunity in a project?
A. An uncertain event that could have a negative impact on objectives
B. An uncertain event that could have a favourable impact on objectives
C. An event that has occurred resulting in a negative impact on objectives
D. An event that has occurred resulting in a favourable impact on objectives
Answer: B
Question: 2
Which of the following statements about lines of authority and reporting are true?
1. The Project Manager has day-to-day control for a management stage within the limits laid,
2. If a Team Manager forecasts a deviation beyond Work Package tolerances, this should be referred to the Project Manager down by the Project Board.
A. Only 1 is true
B. Only 2 is true
C. Both 1 and 2 are true
D. Neither 1 or 2 are true
Answer: C
Question: 3
Which may be funded from a risk budget?
A. Corrections due to off-specifications
B. Impact analysis of requests for change
C. Implementation of a fallback plan
D. Preparation of the Risk Management Strategy
Answer: C
Question: 4
What is the first task of product-based planning?
A. Produce the Initiation Stage Plan
B. Write the Project Product Description
C. Identify dependencies
D. Create the product breakdown structure
Answer: B
Question: 5
How many tasks does the product-based planning technique describe?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
Answer: D
Question: 6
Which is an objective of the quality review technique?
A. To identify a product's quality criteria
B. To provide assurance that the project is being conducted properly
C. To assess that a product conforms to set criteria
D. To ensure that staff are properly trained in the quality methods
Answer: C
Question: 7
Which of the following refers to the actions identified to bring a situation to a level where exposure to a risk is acceptable?
A. Risk category
B. Risk description
C. Risk response
D. Risk status
Answer: C
Question: 8
If an informal issue is defined as a problem or concern, where should it first be recorded?
A. Issue Register
B. Risk Register
C. Daily Log
D. Exception Report
Answer: C
Question: 9
Which of the following statements about the Project Initiation Documentation are true?
1. The Project Initiation Documentation is used to ensure that a sound basis exists.
2. The Project Initiation Documentation should be updated at the end of each stage to reflect the current status of a project before the Project Board authorizes a project,
A. Only 1 is true
B. Only 2 is true
C. Both 1 and 2 are true
D. Neither 1 or 2 are true
Answer: C
Question: 10
Which is the purpose of the Change theme?
A. Prevent change to baselined products
B. Identify, assess and control any potential and approved changes to baselined products
C. Establish mechanisms to monitor and compare actual achievements against those planned
D. Assess and control uncertainty
Answer: B
Question: 11
Why is a Project Brief produced?
A. To act as a trigger for the Starting up a Project process
B. To record the strategies and management controls to be used by a project
C. To provide a full and firm foundation for the initiation of a project
D. To be used by the Project Board as a basis for reviewing the progress of a project
Answer: C
Question: 12
Identify the missing words in the following sentence. An objective of the Closing a Project process is to ensure that provision has been made to address [?] through follow-on action recommendations.
A. the measurement of benefits NOT yet realized
B. the handover of products
C. open issues and risks
D. the release of resources
Answer: C
58 PDF Training Guides
Question: 1
Which of the following are sources of best practice?
1. Academic research
2. Internal experience
3. Industry practices
A. All of the above
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Answer: A
Question: 2
What type of services are NOT directly used by the business but are required by the service provider to deliver customer facing services?
A. Business services
B. Component services
C. Supporting services
D. Customer services
Answer: C
Question: 3
Which of the following are classed as stakeholders in service management?
1. Customers
2. Users
3. Suppliers
A. All of the above
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Answer: A
Question: 4
Which of the following is the best definition of service management?
A. The ability to keep services highly available to meet the business needs
B. A set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of services
C. A complete set of all the documentation required to deliver world class services to customers
D. An internationally recognized methodology to provide valuable services to customers
Answer: B
Question: 5
Which of the following is the best definition of IT service management?
A. An internal service provider that is embedded within a business unit
B. A complete set of all the documentation required to deliver world class services to customers
C. Technical implementation of supporting IT infrastructure components
D. The implementation and management of quality IT services that meet business needs
Answer: D
Question: 6
Which one of the following is the BEST definition of the term ‘service management’?
A. A set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of services
B. A group of interrelated, interacting or independent components that form a unified whole, operating together for a common purpose
C. The management of functions within an organization to perform certain activities
D. Units of organizations with roles to perform certain activities
Answer: A
Question: 7
Which of the following are reasons why ITIL is successful?
1. ITIL is vendor neutral
2. It does not prescribe actions
3. ITIL represents best practice
A. All of the above
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Answer: A
Question: 8
Which of the following is an enabler of best practice?
A. Standards
B. Technology
C. Academic research
D. Internal experience
Answer: B
Question: 9
Which is the correct definition of a customer facing service?
A. One which directly supports the business processes of customers
B. A service that cannot be allowed to fail
C. One which is not covered by a service level agreement
D. A service not directly used by the business
Answer: A
Question: 10
What would you call the groups of people who have an interest in the activities, targets, resources and deliverables from service management?
A. Employers
B. Stakeholders
C. Regulators
D. Accreditors
Answer: B
Question: 11
Why are public frameworks, such as ITIL, attractive when compared to proprietary knowledge?
A. Proprietary knowledge may be difficult to adopt, replicate or transfer since it is often undocumented
B. Public frameworks are always cheaper to adopt
C. Public frameworks are prescriptive and tell you exactly what to do
D. Proprietary knowledge has been tested in a wide range of environments
Answer: A
Question: 12
What should a service always deliver to customers?
A. Applications
B. Infrastructure
C. Value
D. Resources
Answer: C
Question: 13
Which one of the following is NOT a characteristic of a process?
A. It is measurable
B. It delivers specific results
C. It responds to specific events
D. It structures an organization
Answer: D
Question: 14
What are customers of IT services who work in the same organization as the service provider known as?
A. Strategic customers
B. External customers
C. Valued customers
D. Internal customers
Answer: D
Question: 15
Which of the following is best definition of IT service management?
A. An internal service provider that is embedded within a business unit
B. A complete set of all the documentation required to deliver world class services to customers
C. Technical implementation of supporting IT infrastructure components
D. The implementation and management of quality IT services that meet business needs
Answer: D
Question: 16
Which one of the following would NOT be defined as part of every process?
A. Roles
B. Inputs and outputs
C. Functions
D. Metrics
Answer: C
Question: 17
What are customers of IT services who do NOT work in the same organization as the service provider known as?
A. Strategic customers
B. External customers
C. Valued customers
D. Internal customers
Answer: B
Question: 18
What is a service delivered between two business units in the same organization known as?
A. Strategic service
B. Delivered service
C. Internal service
D. External service
Answer: C
MA0-103 Certification Guides
Question: 1
What is the hierarchy used to resolve potential conflicts between application strategies?
A. Archiver > Trusted > Editor > Explorer (Explorer has the lowest ranking)
B. Archiver > Trusted > Explorer > Editor (Editor has the lowest ranking)
C. Archiver > Explorer > Editor > Trusted (Trusted has the lowest ranking)
D. Archiver > Editor > Explorer > Trusted ^Trusted has the lowest ranking)
Answer: B
Question: 2
The DLP End point administrator needs to prevent sensitive data from being transmitted over FTP. Which Rule can be configured to meet this requirement?
A. File System Protection Rule
B. Cloud Protection Rule
C. Application File Access Protection Rule
D. Network Communication Protection Rule
Answer: D
Question: 3
To assist with perceived performance issues prior to product installation, the DLP End point Administrator could prepare by
A. disabling unused modules.
B. distributing agent override codes.
C. establishing a system baseline.
D. enabling the system watch dog service.
Answer: C
Question: 4
How can incident data be exported?
A. Select specific events in DLP manager to export incident data
B. Run reports or queries to generate specific report and export incident data
C. Use database administration to export incident data
D. Run incident task manager to export incident data
Answer: B
Question: 5
Groupings of Applications in McAfee DLP used in rule creation are called
A. Enterprise Applications List.
B. Application Inventory.
C. Application Definitions.
D. Whitelisted Applications.
Answer: C
Question: 6
How can DLP be used to prohibit users from sending confidential files to partners?
A. Create a partner list definition and add to applicable protection rules
B. Create a partner list and apply to device control
C, Use protection rules to stop copying of confidential files
D. Prevent confidential files from being used
Answer: A
HPE2-T30 PDF Download
Question: 1
Which string value attribute provides information to the REST client about a resource revision?
A. client cache
B. URI
C. eTag
D. request header
Answer: B
Question: 2
While you are attempting to perform HPE OneView operational tasks, an HTTP error status of 4xx displays.
What does this error status indicate?
A. A resource problem occurred.
B. An incorrect client action was performed
C. An incorrect programming function was called.
D. A server problem occurred.
Answer: A
Question: 3
HOTSPOT
Point and click on the area of the graphic that identifies the area that the Microsoft System center uses to communicate with HPE One View.
Answer: Insight Plug-in
Question: 4
HOTSPOT
Point and click on the area of the graphic that identifies the architectural layer that a storage administrator uses to communicate with the HPE OneView architecture.
Answer: Converged User Interface and REST API/SCMB
Question: 5
You are attempting to add a supported DL rack server to HPE OneView You have supplied the user credentials for the iLO.
Which object will HPE OneView use in its attempt to claim the rack server?
A. iLO Remote insight Board Command Language (RlBCL)
B. ipmanager binary large object (BLOB)
C. ISKU Identifier
D. VCMURL variable
Answer: A
Question: 6
Which part of HPE OneViews health monitor is responsible for translating incoming traps and sends notification messages to the Alert Service?
A. Events Service
B. SNMP Receiver
C. Status Aggregation Service
D. Alerts Service
Answer: B
HPE2-N66 Real PDF Exam Material
Question: 1
What are two challenges that the HPE Operations Bridge solution Root Cause Analysis and Remediation use case help customers address? (Select two.)
A. inability to locate the root cause of an issue prior to service disruption
B. multiple requests consoles
C. too much time spent troubleshooting unknown problems
D. high costs to manage users of the tools
E. poor quality of infrastructure automation for new services
Answer: A C
Question: 2
What does the HPE Operations Bridge Business and IT Alignment use case provide for the customer?
A. business is converged with IT as one unit
B. impact of IT events on business priorities
C. aligns business requirements to strategic IT planning
D. categorizes IT tools to the business value
Answer: C
Question: 3
How large is the market opportunity for IT Service Management?
A. $12M
B. $500M
C. $6.1B
D. $10B
Answer: D
Question: 4
What percentage of IT budgets is currently being spent on supporting aging legacy systems?
A. 5%
B. 50%
C. 60%
D. 80%
Answer: C
HPE6-A41 PDF Download Exam
Question: 1
All switches are ArubaOS switches that currently have the default spanning tree priority. Switch-1 should be the root of the spanning tree If Switch-1 fails. Switch-2 should become root
Which configuration for spanning tree priorities ensures this behavior?
A. priority 15 on Switch-1 and priority 14 on Switch-2
B. priority 0 on Switch-1 and priority 15 on Switch-2
C. priority 0 on Switch-1 and priority 1 on Switch-2
D. priority 15 on Switch-1 and priority 9 on Switch-2
Answer: A
Question: 2
Exhibit 2 shows the IP routine tables for all the switches after the link between Switch-4 and Switch-2 failed '//'hen This link fails traffic between 10 1 3 0/24 and 10.1.2.0724 is disrupted What should the network administrator do to ensure that this traffic continues to flow if this link fails in the future? (Assume that routes on Switch-1 and Switch-3 are correct.)
A. Add a route to 10.1.3.0/24 through 10.1.3 1 on Switch-4.
B. Add a route to 10.1.2.0/24 through 10.1.0.14 on Switch-2.
C. Add a route to 10.1.3.0/24 through 10.1.0.14 on Switch-2
D. Add a route to 10.1.2 0/24 through 10.1.2.1 on Switch-4.
Answer: B
Question: 3
A network administrator suspects that interfaces in a link aggregation have been accidentally connected to multiple switches. The administrator wants to find the hostnames of the switches on the other side of the interfaces. How can the administrator find this information?
A. Use the show lace command to view LACP information.
B. Use the show trunks command to view link aggregation information.
C. Use the show interface command to view detailed interface status.
D. Use the show lldp info remote-device command to view LLDP information.
Answer: D
Question: 4
Based on this ArubaOS switch output, what can a network administrator determine about the spanning tree topology?
A. Port 2 is an edge port
B. Port 3 will become the root port if the current root port becomes unavailable.
C. Switch-C is the root bridge of the topology.
D. Trk1 offers the lowest cost path to the common spanning tree root.
Answer: C
Question: 5
A network administrator manages an ArubaOS switch through the CLI The administrator needs to configure an untagged VLAN assignment on a range of interfaces. How should the administrator enter the untagged command to complete this configuration?
A. Create a manual, named interface range Then access the context for the range and specify the VLAN ID with the untagged command.
B. Access the context for a range of interfaces and specify the VLAN ID with the untagged command
C. Access the individual context for each of the interfaces and specify the VLAN ID with the untagged command
D. Access the VLAN context and specify a range of interfaces with the untagged command.
Answer: A
Question: 6
A company has a cluster of Aruba Instant APs (lAPs). The company wants to add a new IAP to the cluster. What should network administrators ensure before they connect the new IAP?
A. that the new IAP has been provisioned with an IP address and the IP address of the cluster virtual controller (VC)
B. that the switch port for the AP is untagged for the same VLAN as the current cluster
C. that Aruba Activate is configured with provisioning rules for the IAP
D. that the DHCP server has the correct options 60 and 43
Answer: A
Question: 7
What is one reason to configure a dynamic LACP link aggregation instead of a static link aggregation?
A. so that the link aggregation automatically chooses its operational key
B. so that the link aggregation can detect the system ID and operational key on the other side of each link
C. so that the link aggregation can automatically change a passive LACP interface to active mode
D. so that the link aggregation can include more interfaces with some interfaces on standby
Answer: B
Question: 8
The switches in the exhibit use RSTP The network administrator needs to add Link 2. Why should the administrator configure Links 1 and 2 as a link aggregation?
A. to combine traffic statistics for the interfaces
B. to prevent a loop from occurring
C. to share traffic more evenly over both links
D. to automatically apply the settings already configured for Link 1 to Link 2
Answer: C
Question: 9
An ArubaOs switch has no passwords configured on it. The network administrator then enters these commands:
What is one task that the admin 1 user can log in to the switch and complete?
A. Mew interface status and statistics.
B. Back up a configuration.
C. Mew configuration files.
D. Enable an interface.
Answer: D
Question: 10
On an ArubaOS switch, what is the difference between an SNMPv2c community with manager unrestricted rights and an SNMPv2 community with operator unrestricted rights?
A. The manager unrestricted community has read-write access to all managed objects on the switch; the operator unrestricted community has read-write access to some objects but not to any Config objects.
B. The manager unrestricted community uses the Telnet/SSH password assigned to the manager to authenticate SNMP servers: the operator unrestricted community uses the Telnet/SSH password assigned to the operator.
C. The manager unrestricted community has read-write access to the switch, but the operator unrestricted community has read-only access.
D. The manager unrestricted community uses encryption, but the operator unrestricted community uses plaintext communication
Answer: A
70-768 PDF Demo
Case Study: 1
Wide World Importers
Background
Wide World Importers imports and sells clothing. The company has a multidimensional Microsoft SQL Server Analysis Services instance. The server has 80 gigabytes (GB) of available physical memory. The following installed services are running on the server:
*SQL Server Database Engine
* SQL Server Analysis Services (multidimensional)
The database engine instance has been configured for a hard cap of 50 GB, and it cannot be lowered. The instance contains the following cubes: SalesAnalysis, OrderAnalysis.
Reports that are generated based on data from the OrderAnalysis cube take more time to complete when they are generated in the afternoon each day. You examine the server and observe that it is under significant memory pressure.
Processing for all cubes must occur automatically in increments. You create one job to process the cubes and another job to process the dimensions. You must configure a processing task for each job that optimizes performance. As the cubes grown in size, the overnight processing of the cubes often do not complete during the allowed maintenance time window.
SalesAnalysis
The SalesAnalysis cube is currently being tested before being used in production. Users report that day name attribute values are sorted alphabetically. Day name attribute values must be sorted chronologically. Users report that they are unable to query the cube while any cube processing operations are in progress. You need to maximize data availability during cube processing and ensure that you process both dimensions and measures.
OrderAnalysis
The OrderAnalysis cube is used for reporting and ad-hoc queries from Microsoft Excel. The data warehouse team adds a new table named Fact.Transaction to the cube. The Fact.Transaction table includes a column named Total Including Tax. You must add a new measure named Transactions – Total Including Tax to the cube. The measure must be calculated as the sum of the Total Including Tax column across any selected relevant dimensions.
Finance
The Finance cube is used to analyze General Ledger entries for the company.
Requirements
*You must minimize the time that it takes to process cubes while meeting the following requirements:
*The Sales cube requires overnight processing of dimensions, cubes, measure groups, and partitions.
*The OrderAnalysis cube requires overnight processing of dimensions only.
*The Finance cube requires overnight processing of dimensions only.
Question: 1
You need to configure the server to optimize the afternoon report generation based on the OrderAnalysis cube.
Which property should you configure?
A. LowMemoryLimit
B. VertiPaqPagingPolicy
C. TotalMemoryLimit
D. VirtualMemoryLimit
Answer: A
Explanation:
LowMemoryLimit: For multidimensional instances, a lower threshold at which the server first begins releasing memory allocated to infrequently used objects.
From scenario: Reports that are generated based on data from the OrderAnalysis cube take more time to complete when they are generated in the afternoon each day. You examine the server and observe that it is under significant memory pressure.
Question: 2
DRAG DROP
You need to resolve the issues that the users report.
Which processing options should you use? To answer, drag the appropriate processing option to the correct location or locations. Each processing option may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Answer:
Explanation:
Box1: Process Full:
When Process Full is executed against an object that has already been processed, Analysis Services drops all data in the object, and then processes the object. This kind of processing is required when a structural change has been made to an object, for example, when an attribute hierarchy is added, deleted, or renamed.
Box 2: Process Default
Detects the process state of database objects, and performs processing necessary to deliver unprocessed or partially processed objects to a fully processed state. If you change a data binding, Process Default will do a Process Full on the affected object.
Box 3:
Not Process Update: Forces a re-read of data and an update of dimension attributes. Flexible aggregations and indexes on related partitions will be dropped.
Question: 3
DRAG DROP
You need to create the cube processing job and the dimension processing job.
Which processing task should you use for each job? To answer, drag the appropriate processing tasks to the correct locations. Each processing task may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Answer:
Explanation:
Box 1: ProcessData
Processes data only without building aggregations or indexes. If there is data is in the partitions, it will be dropped before re-populating the partition with source data.
Box 2: Process Update
Forces a re-read of data and an update of dimension attributes. Flexible aggregations and indexes on related partitions will be dropped.
References:https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/analysis-services/multidimensional-models/processing-options-and-settings-analysis-services
300-320 Certification Score
Question: 1
What is the maximum number of routers that each OSPF area (including the backbone) should contain?
A. 30
B. 10
C. 50
D. 60
Answer: C
Question: 2
What is the maximum number of neighbors that a router should have in an OSPF area?
A. 5
B. 30
C. 50
D. 60
Answer: D
Question: 3
Which technology allows multiple instances of a routing table to coexist on the same router simultaneously?
A. VRF
B. Cisco virtual router
C. Instanced virtuer router
D. IS-IS
Answer: A
Question: 4
Which first-hop redundancy protocol that was designed by Cisco allows packet load sharing among groups of redundant routers?
A. GLBP
B. HSRP
C. VRRP
D. VSS
Answer: A
Question: 5
Which routing protocol provides the fastest convergence and greatest flexibility within a campus environment?
A. OSPF
B. IS-IS
C. BGP
D. EIGRP
Answer: D
Question: 6
A network manager wants to securely connect a new remote site to the existing headquarters site using a VPN technology that meets security requirements. Which VPN technology should be used?
A. GRE
B. IPsec
C. remote-access VPN
D. L2TP VPN
Answer: B
Question: 7
Which type of connectivity is required for VPLS?
A. Full mesh
B. Partial mesh
C. Star
D. Bus
E. Ring
Answer: A
Question: 8
Which protocol should be run on the LAN side of two edge routers (that are terminating primary and backup WAN circuits) to provide quick failover in case of primary WAN circuit failure?
A. VTP
B. STP
C. VRRP
D. RIP
Answer: C
Question: 9
Which protocol is best when there are circuit connections with two different ISPs in a multihoming scenario ?
A. VRRP
B. BGP
C. IPsec
D. SSL
Answer: B
Question: 10
Private lines make use of which connection type based on cell switching?
A. ATM
B. ISP MPLS VPN
C. VTI
D. VPLS
Answer: A
Question: 11
Refer to the exhibit.
Which functionality must be enabled on router A to connect two networks for translating private addresses into "legal" public addresses on a one-for-one basis?
A. PAT
B. NAT
C. VLAN
D. GARP
E. PPP
Answer: B
Question: 12
Which technology fulfills these requirements?
Utilize a connection that must support a range of traffic, voice, video, and data.
This traffic must also support transmission via a fixed blank 53-byte cell.
A. PPP
B. Frame Relay
C. ATM
D. MPLS
E. X.25
Answer: C
Question: 13
Which option is used as a top-of-rack device that is managed by its parent device, providing ease of
management?
A. Cisco Nexus 2000
B. Cisco Nexus 5000
C. Cisco Nexus 7000
D. Cisco Nexus 9000
Answer: A
Question: 14
Which option provides software modularity in Cisco NX-OS software in the data center design?
A. The ip routing command enables all of the features in the Cisco NX-OS.
B. All of the features are enabled by default in the Cisco NX-OS.
C. Individual features must be manually enabled to start the process.
D. The Cisco NX-OS has a management VRF that is enabled by default.
Answer: C
Question: 15
A network administrator wants to provide high availability in a data center environment by making sure that there is no reconvergence of Layer 2 and Layer 3 protocols when there is a Layer 3 switch failure. Which Cisco Nexus feature fulfills this purpose?
A. ISSU
B. VSS
C. vPC
D. MEC
Answer: C
Question: 16
Which virtualization technology allows for HSRP protocol to be used in the active/active configuration where both HSRP Layer 3 devices can forward network traffic?
A. OTV
B. VSS
C. vPC
D. VDC
Answer: C
Question: 17
Which technology extends Layer 2 LANs over any network that supports IP?
A. OTV
B. VSS
C. vPC
D. VLAN
Answer: A
Question: 18
What is the purpose of an OTV edge device?
A. connect to other data centers
B. connect to the access layer
C. connect to the end users
D. connect to mobile devices
Answer: A
"Edge Device
The edge device (Figure 1-1) performs OTV functions: it receives the Layer 2 traffic for all VLANs that need to be extended to remote locations and dynamically encapsulates the Ethernet frames into IP packets that are then sent across the transport infrastructure.
[...]
Finally, the OTV edge device can be positioned in different parts of the data center. "
Question: 19
Which architecture provides a way to deliver end-to-end QoS as required by real-time voice and video business
applications?
A. IntServ
B. DiffServ
C. LLQ
D. ToS
E. DSCP
Answer: A
DiffServ is known as "Hop-by-Hop" and not "End-to-End"
Question: 20
CoS is applied for Layer 2 markings in an Ethernet environment. Which protocol must be configured on the Layer 2 switch port for CoS to work?
A. MPLS
B. IEEE 802.1W
C. IEEE 802.1Q
D. IEEE 802.1S
Answer: C
Question: 21
Which protocol is used in an in-band network and why?
A. UDP, because it is connectionless
B. SSH, because the username and password are encrypted
C. Telnet, because the username and password are sent in clear
D. MSDP, because it uses TCP as its transport protocol
Answer: B
Question: 22
What is an advantage of having an out-of-band management?
A. It is less expensive to have an out-of-band management.
B. Network devices can still be managed, even in case of network outage.
C. There is no separation between the production network and the management network.
D. SSH protocol must be used to manage network devices.
Answer: B
Question: 23
The direction of the flow of multicast traffic is based on which protocol?
A. PIM
B. IGMP
C. underlying IGP
D. MSDP
Answer: C
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/solutions_docs/ip_multicast/White_papers/mcst_ovr.html
"Reverse Path Forwarding (RPF) PIM uses the unicast routing information to create a distribution tree along the reverse path from the receivers towards the source. The multicast routers then forward packets along the distribution tree from the source to the receivers. RPF is a key concept in multicast forwarding. It enables routers to correctly forward multicast traffic down the distribution tree. RPF makes use of the existing unicast routing table to determine the upstream and downstream neighbors. A router will forward a multicast packet only if it is received on the upstream interface. This RPF check helps to guarantee that the distribution tree will be loopfree."
Question: 24
What network technology provides Layer 2 high availability between the access and distribution layers?
A. HSRP
B. MEC
C. EIGRP
D. GLBP
Answer: B
Question: 25
An HSRP design requirement states that preemption must be enabled for the active switch, which is a Cisco 4507R. Assume a boot time of 300 seconds. Which setting of the preemption delay timer minimizes the loss of traffic?
A. 50 seconds
B. 100 seconds
C. 150 seconds
D. 200 seconds
Answer: D
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Campus/HA_campus_DG/
hacampusdg.html#wp1107923
"The recommended best practice is to measure the system boot time, and set the HSRP preempt delay
statement to 50 percent greater than this value. This ensures that the HSRP primary distribution node has
established full connectivity to all parts of the network before HSRP preemption is allowed to occur"-> We can't choose 450 secondes so we take the higher delay available..
200-155 Certifications Book
Question: 1
Which two Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch features exceed the functionality of the VWware vNetwork Distributed Switch? (Choose two )
A. access control lists
B. QoS marking
C. Network vMotion
D. port state migration
E. DV Port Groups
Answer: AB
Question: 2
When using a Cisco UCS Director, a typical workflow consists of which two terms? (Choose Two )
A. Resource Manager
B. Workflow Designer
C. Scheduler
D. Activity Planner
E. Predefined Tasks
Answer: BE
Question: 3
Which model is a deployment model in cloud computing?
A. automate cloud
B. layered cloud
C. private cloud
D. collapsed cloud
Answer: A
Question: 4
Which statement about a bridge domain is true?
A. A bridge domain must be liked to one internal network and one external network
B. A bridge domain must be linked to a physical domain
C. A bridge domain typically has at least one subnet that Is associated with it
D. A bridge domain must have at least one external network that is associated with it
Answer: C
Question: 5
Which two options are primary elements of a tenant? (Choose two )
A. firewall rules
B. contracts
C. EPG
D. access policies
E. switch domains
Answer: BC
1V0-621 Real Exam
Question: 1
Which two resources are the most impacted in the infrastructure sprawl experienced in non-virtualized data centers? (Choose two)
A. Power
B. storage
C. Compute
D. Network
Answer: B D
Question: 2
Which tab in the vSphere Web Client allows you to view the state of CPU and memory components for an ESXi Host?
A. Hardware Status
B. Configuration Status
C. Cluster Status
D. Resource Allocation Status
Answer: A
Question: 3
Which storage format can be used to deploy data stores on block storage devices?
A. Virtual Volumes
B. NFS
C. VMFS
D. jSCSI
Answer: C
Question: 4
Which vSphere feature automatically optimized resource utilization and responds to workload requirements?
A. Dynamic Resource Scheduler
B. Data Protection
C. Storage DRS
D. Storage I/O Control
Answer: C
Question: 5
In what two ways can vSphere Replication minimize network bandwidth consumption while replicating and storing virtual machines?
A. it can use pre-shipped VMDK files as seeds
B. It limits CPU cycles used during data transfer.
C. it can use dedicated network resources for replication.
D. It stores the replicated data in compressed format
Answer: C D
Question: 6
Which three chart styles are available when viewing performance metrics in the vSphere web client? (Choose three.)
A. Bar chat
B. Scatter chat
C. Line chat
D. Pie chat
E. Histogram chat
Answer: A C D
Question: 7
Which two features of vSphere helps organizations plan for disaster recovery? (Choose two)
A. High Availability
B. vSphere Replication
C. Fault Tolerance
D. Data Protection
Answer: A B
Question: 8
Which two vSphere 6.x technologies simplify management in data centers with multiple vCenter instances? (Choose two)
A. Content Library
B. Long Distance vMotion
C. Distributed Resource Scheduler
D. vSphere Distributed Switch
Answer: B C
NSE4 Free Demo Practice
Question: 1
Which of the following sequences describes the correct order of criteria used for the selection of a master unit within a FortiGate high availability (HA) cluster when override is disabled?
A. 1. port monitor, 2. unit priority, 3. up time, 4. serial number.
B. 1. port monitor, 2. up time, 3. unit priority, 4. serial number.
C. 1. unit priority, 2. up time, 3. port monitor, 4. serial number.
D. 1. up time, 2. unit priority, 3. port monitor, 4. serial number.
Answer: B
Question: 2
Which statements are correct regarding URL filtering on a FortiGate unit? (Choose two.)
A. The allowed actions for URL filtering include allow, block, monitor and exempt.
B. The allow actions for URL filtering and Allow and Block only.
C. URL filters may be based on patterns using simple text, wildcards and regular expressions.
D. URL filters are based on simple text only and require an exact match.
Answer: A, C
Question: 3
Examine the following log message for IPS:
2012-07-01 09:54:28 oid=2 log_id=18433 type=ips subtype=anomaly pri=alert vd=root
severity=''critical'' src=''192.168.3.168'' dst=''192.168.3.170'' src_int=''port2'' serial=0
status=''detected'' proto=1 service=''icmp'' count=1 attack_name=''icmp_flood'' icmp_id=''0xa8a4''
icmp_type=''0x08'' icmp_code=''0x00'' attack_id=16777316 sensor=''1''
ref=''http://www.fortinet.com/ids/VID16777316'' msg=''anomaly: icmp_flood, 51 > threshold 50''
Which statement is correct about the above log? (Choose two.)
A. The target is 192.168.3.168.
B. The target is 192.168.3.170.
C. The attack was NOT blocked.
D. The attack was blocked.
Answer: B, D
Question: 4
Regarding tunnel-mode SSL VPN, which three statements are correct? (Choose three.)
A. Split tunneling is supported.
B. It requires the installation of a VPN client.
C. It requires the use of an Internet browser.
D. It does not support traffic from third-party network applications.
E. An SSL VPN IP address is dynamically assigned to the client by the FortiGate unit.
Answer: A, B, E
Question: 5
Examine the output below from the diagnose sys top command:
Which statements are true regarding the output above (Choose two.)
A. The sshd process is the one consuming most CPU.
B. The sshd process is using 123 pages of memory.
C. The command diagnose sys kill miglogd will restart the miglogd process.
D. All the processes listed are in sleeping state.
Answer: A, D
Question: 6
A FortiGate administrator with the super_admin profile configures a virtual domain (VDOM) for a new customer. After creating the VDOM, the administrator is unable to reassign the dmz interface to the new VDOM as the option is greyed out in the GUI in the management VDOM.
What would be a possible cause for this problem?
A. The administrator does not have the proper permissions the dmz interface.
B. The dmz interface is referenced in the configuration of another VDOM.
C. Non-management VDOMs cannot reference physical interfaces
D. The dmz interface is in PPPoE or DHCP mode.
Answer: B
Question: 7
Review the static route configuration for IPsec shown in the exhibit; then answer the question below.
Which statements are correct regarding this configuration? (Choose two.)
A. Interface remote is an IPsec interface.
B. A gateway address is not required because the interface is a point-to-point connection.
C. A gateway address is not required because the default route is used.
D. Interface remote is a zone.
Answer: A, B
Question: 8
In HA, the option Reserve Management Port for Cluster Member is selected as shown in the exhibit below.
Which statements are correct regarding this setting? (Choose two.)
A. Interface settings on port7 will not be synchronized with other cluster members.
B. The IP address assigned to this interface must not overlap with the IP address subnet assigned to another interface.
C. When connecting to port7 you always connect to the master device.
D. A gateway address may be configured for port7.
Answer: A, D
Question: 9
Which IPsec configuration mode can be used for implementing GRE-over-IPsec VPNs?
A. Policy-based only.
B. Route-based only.
C. Either policy-based or route-based VPN.
D. GRE-based only.
Answer: B
Question: 10
Which tasks fall under the responsibility of the SSL proxy in a typical HTTPS connection? (Choose two.)
A. The web client SSL handshake.
B. The web server SSL handshake.
C. File buffering.
D. Communication with the URL filter process.
Answer: A, B
Question: 11
Which statements are true regarding traffic shaping that is applied in an application sensor, and associated with the firewall policy? (Choose two.)
A. Shared traffic shaping cannot be used.
B. Only traffic matching the application control signature is shaped.
C. Can limit the bandwidth usage of heavy traffic applications.
D. Per-IP traffic shaping cannot be used.
Answer: B, C
Question: 12
What are valid options for handling DNS requests sent directly to a FortiGate’s interface IP? (Choose three.)
A. Conditional-forward.
B. Forward-only.
C. Non-recursive.
D. Iterative.
E. Recursive.
Answer: B, C, E
Question: 13
A FortiGate is configured to receive push updates from the FortiGuard Distribution Network, however, they are not being received.
Which is one reason for this problem?
A. The FortiGate is connected to multiple ISPs.
B. FortiGuard scheduled updates are enabled in the FortiGate configuration.
C. The FortiGate is in Transparent mode.
D. The external facing interface of the FortiGate is configured to get the IP address from a DHCP server.
Answer: D
Question: 14
Which statements are true regarding local user authentication? (Choose two.)
A. Two-factor authentication can be enabled on a per user basis.
B. Local users are for administration accounts only and cannot be used to authenticate network users.
C. Administrators can create the user accounts in a remote server and store the user passwords locally in the FortiGate.
D. Both the usernames and passwords can be stored locally on the FortiGate.
Answer: A, D
Question: 15
What methods can be used to access the FortiGate CLI? (Choose two.)
A. Using SNMP.
B. A direct connection to the serial console port.
C. Using the CLI console widget in the GUI.
D. Using RCP.
Answer: B, C
70-743 Practice Test Software
Question: 1
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some questions sets might have more than one correct solutions, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains a member server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2.
Contoso.com has the following configuration:
You plan to deploy an Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) farm on Server1 and to configure device registration.
You need to configure Active Directory to support the planned deployment.
Solution: You upgrade a domain controller to Windows Server 2016.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: B
Explanation:
Device registration requires a forest functional level of Windows Server 2012 R2.
References:
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server-docs/identity/ad-fs/design/ad-fs-requirements
Question: 2
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some questions sets might have more than one correct solutions, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains a member server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2.
Contoso.com has the following configuration:
You plan to deploy an Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) farm on Server1 and to configure device registration.
You need to configure Active Directory to support the planned deployment.
Solution: You raise the forest functional level to Windows Server 2012 R2.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: B
Explanation:
For a Windows Server 2012 R2 AD FS server, this solution would work. However, new installations of AD FS 2016 require the Active Directory 2016 schema (minimum version 85).
Question: 3
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some questions sets might have more than one correct solutions, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains a member server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2.
Contoso.com has the following configuration:
You plan to deploy an Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) farm on Server1 and to configure device registration.
You need to configure Active Directory to support the planned deployment.
Solution: You run adprep.exe from the Windows Server 2016 installation media.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: B
Explanation:
Device registration requires a forest functional level of Windows Server 2012 R2.
New installations of AD FS 2016 require the Active Directory 2016 schema (minimum version 85).
References:
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dd464018(v=ws.10).aspx
Question: 4
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals.
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a DNS server named Server1. All client computers run Windows 10.
On Server1, you have the following zone configuration.
You need to ensure that all of the client computers in the domain perform DNSSEC validation for the fabrikam.com namespace.
Solution: From Windows PowerShell on Server1, you run the Add-DnsServertrustAnchor cmdlet.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: B
Explanation:
The Add-DnsServerTrustAnchor command adds a trust anchor to a DNS server. A trust anchor (or trust “point”) is a public cryptographic key for a signed zone. Trust anchors must be configured on every non-authoritative DNS server that will attempt to validate DNS data. Trust Anchors have no direct relation to DSSEC validation.
References:
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/jj649932.aspx
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dn593672(v=ws.11).aspx
Question: 5
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals.
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a DNS server named Server1. All client computers run Windows 10.
On Server1, you have the following zone configuration.
You need to ensure that all of the client computers in the domain perform DNSSEC validation for the fabrikam.com namespace.
Solution: From a Group Policy object (GPO) in the domain, you add a rule to the Name Resolution Policy Table (NRPT).
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: A
Explanation:
The NRPT stores configurations and settings that are used to deploy DNS Security Extensions (DNSSEC), and also stores information related to DirectAccess, a remote access technology.
Note: The Name Resolution Policy Table (NRPT) is a new feature available in Windows Server 2008 R2. The NRPT is a table that contains rules you can configure to specify DNS settings or special behavior for names or namespaces. When performing DNS name resolution, the DNS Client service checks the NRPT before sending a DNS query. If a DNS query or response matches an entry in the NRPT, it is handled according to settings in the policy. Queries and responses that do not match an NRPT entry are processed normally.
References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ee649207(v=ws.10).aspx
Question: 6
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals.
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a DNS server named Server1. All client computers run Windows 10.
On Server1, you have the following zone configuration.
You need to ensure that all of the client computers in the domain perform DNSSEC validation for the fabrikam.com namespace.
Solution: From a Group Policy object (GPO) in the domain, you modify the Network List Manager Policies.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: B
Explanation:
Network List Manager Policies are security settings that you can use to configure different aspects of how networks are listed and displayed on one computer or on many computers.
Network List Manager Policies are not related to DNSSEC.
References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/jj966256(v=ws.11).aspx
Question: 7
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016.
You need to configure Server1 as a multitenant RAS Gateway.
What should you install on Server1?
A. the Network Controller server role
B. the Remote Access server role
C. the Data Center Bridging feature
D. the Network Policy and Access Services server role
Answer: B
Explanation:
RAS Gateway - Multitenant. You can deploy RAS Gateway as a multitenant, software-based edge gateway and router when you are using Hyper-V Network Virtualization or you have VM networks deployed with virtual Local Area Networks (VLANs). With the RAS Gateway, CloudService Providers (CSPs) and Enterprises can enable datacenter and cloud network traffic routing between virtual and physical networks, including the Internet. With the RAS Gateway, your tenants can use point-so-site VPN connections to access their VM network resources in the datacenter from anywhere. You can also provide tenants with site-to-site VPN connections between their remote sites and your CSP datacenter. In addition, you can configure the RAS Gateway with BGP for dynamic routing, and you can enable Network Address Translation (NAT) to provide Internet access for VMs on VM networks.
References:
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server-docs/networking/remote-access/remote-access
Question: 8
HOTSPOT
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 is a Hyper-V host.
You have two network adapter cards on Server1 that are Remote Direct Memory Access (RDMA)-capable.
You need to aggregate the bandwidth of the network adapter cards for a virtual machine on Server1. The solution must ensure that the virtual machine can use the RDMA capabilities of the network adapter cards.
Which commands should you run first? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Answer:
Explanation:
A new feature of Windows Server 2016 is SET (Switch Embedded Teaming).
Create a SET team
You must create a SET team at the same time that you create the Hyper-V Virtual Switch with the New-VMSwitch Windows PowerShell command.
When you create the Hyper-V Virtual Switch, you must include the new EnableEmbeddedTeaming parameter in your command syntax.
In the following example, a Hyper-V switch named TeamedvSwitch with embedded teaming and two initial team members is created.
New-VMSwitch -Name TeamedvSwitch -NetAdapterName "NIC 1","NIC 2"
-EnableEmbeddedTeaming $true
References:
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-gb/library/mt403349.aspx
Question: 9
DRAG DROP
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016.
You need to deploy the first cluster node of a Network Controller cluster.
Which four cmdlets should you run in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate cmdlets from the list of cmdlets to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Answer:
Explanation:
Deploy Network Controller using Windows PowerShell
Step 1: Install-WindowsFeature
Install the Network Controller server role
To install Network Controller by using Windows PowerShell, type the following commands at a Windows PowerShell prompt, and then press ENTER.
Install-WindowsFeature -Name NetworkController –IncludeManagementTools
Step 2: New-NetworkControllerNodeObject
You can create a Network Controller cluster by creating a node object andthen configuring the cluster.
You need to create a node object for each computer or VM that is a member of the Network Controller cluster.
Tocreate a node object, type the following command at the Windows PowerShell command prompt, and then press ENTER. Ensure that you add values for each parameter that are appropriate for your deployment.
New-NetworkControllerNodeObject –Name <string> -Server<String> -FaultDomain <string>-RestInte
Step 3: Install-NetworkControllerCluster
To configure the cluster, typethe following command at the Windows PowerShell command prompt, and then press ENTER. Ensure that you add values for each parameter that are appropriate for your deployment.
Install-NetworkControllerCluster –Node <NetworkControllerNode[]> –ClusterAuthentication …
Step 4: Install-NetworkController
To configure the Network Controller application, type the following command at the Windows PowerShell command prompt, and then press ENTER. Ensure that you add values for each parameter that are appropriate for your deployment.
Install-NetworkController –Node <NetworkControllerNode[]> –ClientAuthentication
References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/mt282165.aspx
Question: 10
You have an Active Directory domain that contains several Hyper-V hosts that run Windows Server 2016.
You plan to deploy network virtualization and to centrally manage Datacenter Firewall policies.
Which component must you install for the planned deployment?
A. the Routing role service
B. the Canary Network Diagnostics feature
C. the Network Controller server role
D. the Data Center Bridging feature
Answer: C
Explanation:
Using Windows PowerShell, the REST API, or a management application, you can use Network Controller to manage the following physical and virtual network infrastructure:
References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dn859239.aspx
210-255 Exams Study Guides
Question: 1
Refer to the exhibit.
We have performed a malware detection on the Cisco website. Which statement about the result is true?
A. The website has been marked benign on all 68 checks.
B. The threat detection needs to run again.
C. The website has 68 open threats.
D. The website has been marked benign on 0 checks.
Answer: A
Question: 2
During which phase of the forensic process is data that is related to a specific event labeled and recorded to preserve its integrity?
A. collection
B. examination
C. reporting
D. investigation
Answer: A
Question: 3
Refer to the Exhibit. A customer reports that they cannot access your organization's website. Which option is a possible reason that the customer cannot access the website?
A. The server at 10.33.1.5 is using up too much bandwidth causing a denial- of-service.
B. The server at 10.67.10.5 has a virus.
C. A vulnerability scanner has shown that 10.67.10.5 has been compromised.
D. Web traffic sent from 10.67.10.5 has been identified as malicious by Internet sensors.
Answer: C
Question: 4
You see 100 HTTP GET and POST requests for various pages on one of your webservers. The user agent in the requests contain php code that, if executed, creates and writes to a new php file on the webserver. Which category does this event fall under as defined in the Diamond Model of Intrusion?
A. delivery
B. reconnaissance
C. action on objectives
D. installation
E. exploitation
Answer: D
Question: 5
Which two options can be used by a threat actor to determine the role of a server? (Choose two.)
A. PCAP
B. tracert
C. running processes
D. hard drive configuration
E. applications
Answer: C D
210-250 PDF Download
Question: 1
Which definition of a fork in Linux is true?
A. daemon to execute scheduled commands
B. parent directory name of a file pathname
C. macros for manipulating CPU sets
D. new process created by a parent process
Answer: D
Question: 2
Which identifier is used to describe the application or process that submitted a log message?
A. action
B. selector
C. priority
D. facility
Answer: D
Question: 3
Which protocol is expected to have NTP a user agent, host, and referrer headers in a packet capture?
A. NTP
B. HTTP
C. DNS
D. SSH
Answer: B
Question: 4
Which evasion method involves performing actions slower than normal to prevent detection?
A. traffic fragmentation
B. tunneling
C. timing attack
D. resource exhaustion
Answer: C
Question: 5
Which type of attack occurs when an attacker is successful in eavesdropping on a conversation between two IPS phones?
A. replay
B. man-in-the-middle
C. dictionary
D. known-plaintext
Answer: B
Question: 6
Which definition of permissions in Linux is true?
A. rules that allow network traffic to go in and out
B. table maintenance program
C. written affidavit that you have to sign before using the system
D. attributes of ownership and control of an object
Answer: D
70-461 Real Exam
Question: 1
You develop a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 server database that supports an application. The application contains a table that has the following definition:
CREATE TABLE Inventory
(ItemID int NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY,
ItemsInStore int NOT NULL,
ItemsInWarehouse int NOT NULL)
You need to create a computed column that returns the sum total of the ItemsInStore and ItemsInWarehouse values for each row.
Which Transact-SQL statement should you use?
A. ALTER TABLE Inventory
ADD TotalItems AS ItemsInStore + ItemsInWarehouse
B. ALTER TABLE Inventory
ADD ItemsInStore - ItemsInWarehouse = TotalItemss
C. ALTER TABLE Inventory
ADD TotalItems = ItemsInStore + ItemsInWarehouse
D. ALTER TABLE Inventory
ADD TotalItems AS SUM(ItemsInStore, ItemsInWarehouse);
Answer: A
Explanation:
Reference: http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms190273.aspx
Question: 2
You develop a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database. You create a view from the Orders and OrderDetails tables by using the following definition.
You need to improve the performance of the view by persisting data to disk. What should you do?
A. Create an INSTEAD OF trigger on the view.
B. Create an AFTER trigger on the view.
C. Modify the view to use the WITH VIEW_METADATA clause.
D. Create a clustered index on the view.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Reference: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms188783.aspx
Question: 3
You develop a database for a travel application. You need to design tables and other database objects.
You create the Airline_Schedules table.
You need to store the departure and arrival dates and times of flights along with time zone information.
What should you do?
A. Use the CAST function.
B. Use the DATE data type.
C. Use the FORMAT function.
D. Use an appropriate collation.
E. Use a user-defined table type.
F. Use the VARBINARY data type.
G. Use the DATETIME data type.
H. Use the DATETIME2 data type.
I. Use the DATETIMEOFFSET data type.
J. Use the TODATETIMEOFFSET function.
Answer: I
Explanation:
Reference: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ff848733.aspx
Reference: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb630289.aspx
Question: 4
You develop a database for a travel application. You need to design tables and other database objects. You create a stored procedure. You need to supply the stored procedure with multiple event names and their dates as parameters. What should you do?
A. Use the CAST function.
B. Use the DATE data type.
C. Use the FORMAT function.
D. Use an appropriate collation.
E. Use a user-defined table type.
F. Use the VARBINARY data type.
G. Use the DATETIME data type.
H. Use the DATETIME2 data type.
I. Use the DATETIMEOFFSET data type.
J. Use the TODATETIMEOFFSET function.
Answer: E
Question: 5
CORRECT TEXT
You have a view that was created by using the following code:
You need to create an inline table-valued function named Sales.fn_OrdersByTerritory, which must meet the following requirements:
Accept the @T integer parameter.
Use one-part names to reference columns.
Filter the query results by SalesTerritoryID.
Return the columns in the same order as the order used in OrdersByTerritoryView.
Which code segment should you use?
To answer, type the correct code in the answer area.
Answer:
CORRECT TEXTPlease review the explanation part for this answer
CREATE FUNCTION Sales.fn_OrdersByTerritory (@T int)
RETURNS TABLE
AS
RETURN
(
SELECT OrderID,OrderDate,SalesTerrirotyID,TotalDue
FROM Sales.OrdersByTerritory
WHERE SalesTerritoryID = @T
)
Question: 6
CORRECT TEXT
You have a database that contains the tables shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
You deploy a new server that has SQL Server 2012 installed. You need to create a table named
Sales.OrderDetails on the new server. Sales.OrderDetails must meet the following requirements:
Write the results to a disk.
Contain a new column named LineItemTotal that stores the product of ListPrice and Quantity for each row.
The code must NOT use any object delimiters.
The solution must ensure that LineItemTotal is stored as the last column in the table. Which code segment should you use?
To answer, type the correct code in the answer area.
Answer:
CORRECT TEXTPlease review the explanation part for this answer
CREATE TABLE Sales.OrderDetails (
ListPrice money not null,
Quantity int not null,
LineItemTotal as (ListPrice * Quantity) PERSISTED)
Explanation:
Reference: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms174979.aspx
Reference: http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms188300.aspx
Question: 7
CORRECT TEXT
You have a database that contains the tables shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
You need to create a view named uv_CustomerFullName to meet the following requirements:
The code must NOT include object delimiters.
The view must be created in the Sales schema.
Columns must only be referenced by using one-part names.
The view must return the first name and the last name of all customers.
The view must prevent the underlying structure of the customer table from being changed.
The view must be able to resolve all referenced objects, regardless of the user's default schema.
Which code segment should you use?
To answer, type the correct code in the answer area.
Answer:
CORRECT TEXTPlease review the explanation part for this answer
CREATE VIEW Sales.uv_CustomerFullName
WITH SCHEMABINDING
AS
SELECT FirstName, LastName
FROM Sales.Customers
Explanation:
Reference: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms187956.aspx
Question: 8
CORRECT TEXT
You have a database that contains the tables shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
You need to create a query that calculates the total sales of each OrderId from the Sales.Details table. The solution must meet the following requirements:
Use one-part names to reference columns.
Sort the order of the results from OrderId.
NOT depend on the default schema of a user.
Use an alias of TotalSales for the calculated ExtendedAmount.
Display only the OrderId column and the calculated TotalSales column.
Which code segment should you use?
To answer, type the correct code in the answer area.
Answer:
CORRECT TEXTPlease review the explanation part for this answer
SELECT OrderID, SUM(ExtendedAmount) AS TotalSales
FROM Sales.Details
GROUP BY OrderID
ORDER BY OrderID
Question: 9
You have a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database that contains tables named Customers and Orders.
The tables are related by a column named CustomerID.
You need to create a query that meets the following requirements:
Returns the CustomerName for all customers and the OrderDate for any orders that they have placed.
Results must include customers who have not placed any orders.
Which Transact-SQL query should you use?
A. SELECT CustomerName, OrderDate
FROM Customers
RIGHT OUTER JOIN Orders
ON Customers.CustomerID = Orders.CustomerID
B. SELECT CustomerName, OrderDate
FROM Customers
JOIN Orders
ON Customers.CustomerID = Orders.CustomerID
C. SELECT CustomerName, OrderDate
FROM Customers
CROSS JOIN Orders
ON Customers.CustomerID = Orders.CustomerID
D. SELECT CustomerName, OrderDate
FROM Customers
LEFT OUTER JOIN Orders
ON Customers.CustomerID = Orders.CustomerID
Answer: D
Explanation:
Reference: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms177634.aspx
Question: 10
You create a stored procedure that will update multiple tables within a transaction.
You need to ensure that if the stored procedure raises a run-time error, the entire transaction is terminated and rolled back.
Which Transact-SQL statement should you include at the beginning of the stored procedure?
A. SET XACT_ABORT ON
B. SET ARITHABORT ON
C. TRY
D. BEGIN
E. SET ARITHABORT OFF
F. SET XACT_ABORT OFF
Answer: A
Explanation:
Reference: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms190306.aspx
Reference: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms188792.aspx
Question: 11
Your database contains two tables named DomesticSalesOrders and InternationalSalesOrders. Both tables contain more than 100 million rows. Each table has a Primary Key column named SalesOrderId. The data in the two tables is distinct from one another.
Business users want a report that includes aggregate information about the total number of global sales and total sales amounts.
You need to ensure that your query executes in the minimum possible time.
Which query should you use?
A. SELECT COUNT(*) AS NumberOfSales, SUM(SalesAmount) AS TotalSalesAmount
FROM (
SELECT SalesOrderId, SalesAmount
FROM DomesticSalesOrders
UNION ALL
SELECT SalesOrderId, SalesAmount
FROM InternationalSalesOrders
) AS p
B. SELECT COUNT(*) AS NumberOfSales, SUM(SalesAmount) AS TotalSalesAmount
FROM (
SELECT SalesOrderId, SalesAmount
FROM DomesticSalesOrders
UNION
SELECT SalesOrderId, SalesAmount
FROM InternationalSalesOrders
) AS p
C. SELECT COUNT(*) AS NumberOfSales, SUM(SalesAmount) AS TotalSalesAmount
FROM DomesticSalesOrders
UNION
SELECT COUNT(*) AS NumberOfSales, SUM(SalesAmount) AS TotalSalesAmount
FROM InternationalSalesOrders
D. SELECT COUNT(*) AS NumberOfSales, SUM(SalesAmount) AS TotalSalesAmount
FROM DomesticSalesOrders
UNION ALL
SELECT COUNT(*) AS NumberOfSales, SUM(SalesAmount) AS TotalSalesAmount
FROM InternationalSalesOrders
Answer: A
Explanation:
Reference: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms180026.aspx
Question: 12
You are a database developer at an independent software vendor. You create stored procedures that contain proprietary code.
You need to protect the code from being viewed by your customers.
Which stored procedure option should you use?
A. ENCRYPTBYKEY
B. ENCRYPTION
C. ENCRYPTBYPASSPHRASE
D. ENCRYPTBYCERT
Answer: B
Explanation:
Reference: http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb510663.aspx
Reference: http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms174361.aspx
Reference: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms187926.aspx
Reference: http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms190357.aspx
Reference: http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms188061.aspx
Question: 13
You use a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database.
You want to create a table to store Microsoft Word documents.
You need to ensure that the documents must only be accessible via Transact-SQL queries.
Which Transact-SQL statement should you use?
A. CREATE TABLE DocumentStore
(
[Id] INT NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY,
[Document] VARBINARY(MAX) NULL
)
GO
B. CREATE TABLE DocumentStore
(
[Id] hierarchyid,
[Document] NVARCHAR NOT NULL
)
GO
C. CREATE TABLE DocumentStore AS FileTable
D. CREATE TABLE DocumentStore
(
[Id] [uniqueidentifier] ROWGUIDCOL NOT NULL UNIQUE,
[Document] VARBINARY(MAX) FILESTREAM NULL
)
GO
Answer: A
Explanation:
Reference: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/gg471497.aspx
Reference: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ff929144.aspx
Question: 14
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database that contains a table named OrderDetail. You discover that the NCI_OrderDetail_CustomerID non-clustered index is fragmented. You need to reduce fragmentation.
You need to achieve this goal without taking the index offline. Which Transact-SQL batch should you use?
A. CREATE INDEX NCI_OrderDetail_CustomerID ON OrderDetail.CustomerID WITH DROP
EXISTING
B. ALTER INDEX NCI_OrderDetail_CustomerID ON OrderDetail.CustomerID REORGANIZE
C. ALTER INDEX ALL ON OrderDetail REBUILD
D. ALTER INDEX NCI_OrderDetail_CustomerID ON OrderDetail.CustomerID REBUILD
Answer: B
Explanation:
Reference: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms188388.aspx
Question: 15
DRAG DROP
You have a SQL Server database named CUSTOMERS.
You need to sign a stored procedure named SelectCustomers in the CUSTOMERS database.
Which four statements should you execute in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate statements from the list of statements to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Answer:
There are four steps involved in signing a module:
References:https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb669102(v=vs.110).aspx
MB6-890 PDF Download
Question: 1
Which component of Microsoft Dynamics AX enforces user-specific data security on the data store and database?
A. UI Interaction Layer (WCF)
B. Data Access Layer (DAL)
C. OData Endpoint (WCF)
D. Form Engine
Answer: B
Question: 2
You need to verify the properties related to a specific table in the AOT, and you do not have a project The properties pane is already open in Visual Studio.
Which component do you need to use to select the table in order to see the properties?
A. Application Explorer
B. Object Browser
C. Solution Explorer
D. Code Definition Window
Answer: D
Question: 3
You are explaining the structure of a model to your client
Which two pieces of information should you provide to your client? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Models can contain elements.
B. Models can be associated with multiple Microsoft Visual Studio AX projects.
C. Models can contain data.
D. Models can contain multiple packages.
Answer: A
Question: 4
You are using Visual Studio to manage development with Microsoft Dynamics AX. You need to complete a project for use within the application. Which step must be performed?
A. best practice check
B. synchronization
C. build
D. validation
Answer: A
Question: 5
You are required to configure a Microsoft Dynamics AX production environment for your customer.
You need to configure the Dynamics AX server as part of the overall installation and configuration.
Which two components can be used to deploy the server? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Database
B. Azure Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) Virtual Machines
C. Windows PowerShell Commands
D. Internet Information Services (DA) web application
Answer: AB
CS0-001 Practice Test Software
Question: 1
An organization has recently recovered from an incident where a managed switch had been accessed and reconfigured without authorization by an insider. The incident response team is working on developing a lessons learned report with recommendations. Which of the following recommendations will BEST prevent the same attack from occurring in the future?
A. Remove and replace the managed switch with an unmanaged one.
B. Implement a separate logical network segment for management interfaces.
C. Install and configure NAC services to allow only authorized devices to connect to the network.
D. Analyze normal behavior on the network and configure the IDS to alert on deviations from normal.
Answer: B
Question: 2
HOTSPOT
A security analyst suspects that a workstation may be beaconing to a command and control server. You must inspect the logs from the company’s web proxy server and the firewall to determine the best course of action to take in order to neutralize the threat with minimum impact to the organization.
Instructions:
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please select the Reset button. When you have completed the simulation, please select the Done button to submit. Once the simulation is submitted, please select the Next button to continue.
Answer: DENY TCP 192.168.1.5 7999 67.8.9.224 8080
Question: 3
Which of the following BEST describes the offensive participants in a tabletop exercise?
A. Red team
B. Blue team
C. System administrators
D. Security analysts
E. Operations team
Answer: A
Question: 4
After analyzing and correlating activity from multiple sensors, the security analyst has determined a group from a high-risk country is responsible for a sophisticated breach of the company network and continuous administration of targeted attacks for the past three months. Until now, the attacks went unnoticed. This is an example of:
A. privilege escalation.
B. advanced persistent threat.
C. malicious insider threat.
D. spear phishing.
Answer: B
Question: 5
A system administrator who was using an account with elevated privileges deleted a large amount of log files generated by a virtual hypervisor in order to free up disk space. These log files are needed by the security team to analyze the health of the virtual machines. Which of the following compensating controls would help prevent this from reoccurring? (Select two.)
A. Succession planning
B. Separation of duties
C. Mandatory vacation
D. Personnel training
E. Job rotation
Answer: B
Question: 6
Which of the following best practices is used to identify areas in the network that may be vulnerable to penetration testing from known external sources?
A. Blue team training exercises
B. Technical control reviews
C. White team training exercises
D. Operational control reviews
Answer: A
300-320 PDF Demo
Question: 1
What is the maximum number of routers that each OSPF area (including the backbone) should contain?
A. 30
B. 10
C. 50
D. 60
Answer: C
Question: 2
What is the maximum number of neighbors that a router should have in an OSPF area?
A. 5
B. 30
C. 50
D. 60
Answer: D
Question: 3
Which technology allows multiple instances of a routing table to coexist on the same router simultaneously?
A. VRF
B. Cisco virtual router
C. Instanced virtuer router
D. IS-IS
Answer: A
Question: 4
Which first-hop redundancy protocol that was designed by Cisco allows packet load sharing among groups of redundant routers?
A. GLBP
B. HSRP
C. VRRP
D. VSS
Answer: A
Question: 5
Which routing protocol provides the fastest convergence and greatest flexibility within a campus environment?
A. OSPF
B. IS-IS
C. BGP
D. EIGRP
Answer: D
Question: 6
A network manager wants to securely connect a new remote site to the existing headquarters site using a VPN technology that meets security requirements. Which VPN technology should be used?
A. GRE
B. IPsec
C. remote-access VPN
D. L2TP VPN
Answer: B
Question: 7
Which type of connectivity is required for VPLS?
A. Full mesh
B. Partial mesh
C. Star
D. Bus
E. Ring
Answer: A
Question: 8
Which protocol should be run on the LAN side of two edge routers (that are terminating primary and backup WAN circuits) to provide quick failover in case of primary WAN circuit failure?
A. VTP
B. STP
C. VRRP
D. RIP
Answer: C
Question: 9
Which protocol is best when there are circuit connections with two different ISPs in a multihoming scenario ?
A. VRRP
B. BGP
C. IPsec
D. SSL
Answer: B
Question: 10
Private lines make use of which connection type based on cell switching?
A. ATM
B. ISP MPLS VPN
C. VTI
D. VPLS
Answer: A
Question: 11
Refer to the exhibit.
Which functionality must be enabled on router A to connect two networks for translating private addresses into "legal" public addresses on a one-for-one basis?
A. PAT
B. NAT
C. VLAN
D. GARP
E. PPP
Answer: B
Question: 12
Which technology fulfills these requirements?
Utilize a connection that must support a range of traffic, voice, video, and data.
This traffic must also support transmission via a fixed blank 53-byte cell.
A. PPP
B. Frame Relay
C. ATM
D. MPLS
E. X.25
Answer: C
Question: 13
Which option is used as a top-of-rack device that is managed by its parent device, providing ease of
management?
A. Cisco Nexus 2000
B. Cisco Nexus 5000
C. Cisco Nexus 7000
D. Cisco Nexus 9000
Answer: A
Question: 14
Which option provides software modularity in Cisco NX-OS software in the data center design?
A. The ip routing command enables all of the features in the Cisco NX-OS.
B. All of the features are enabled by default in the Cisco NX-OS.
C. Individual features must be manually enabled to start the process.
D. The Cisco NX-OS has a management VRF that is enabled by default.
Answer: C
Question: 15
A network administrator wants to provide high availability in a data center environment by making sure that there is no reconvergence of Layer 2 and Layer 3 protocols when there is a Layer 3 switch failure. Which Cisco Nexus feature fulfills this purpose?
A. ISSU
B. VSS
C. vPC
D. MEC
Answer: C
Question: 16
Which virtualization technology allows for HSRP protocol to be used in the active/active configuration where both HSRP Layer 3 devices can forward network traffic?
A. OTV
B. VSS
C. vPC
D. VDC
Answer: C
Question: 17
Which technology extends Layer 2 LANs over any network that supports IP?
A. OTV
B. VSS
C. vPC
D. VLAN
Answer: A
Question: 18
What is the purpose of an OTV edge device?
A. connect to other data centers
B. connect to the access layer
C. connect to the end users
D. connect to mobile devices
Answer: A
"Edge Device
The edge device (Figure 1-1) performs OTV functions: it receives the Layer 2 traffic for all VLANs that need to be extended to remote locations and dynamically encapsulates the Ethernet frames into IP packets that are then sent across the transport infrastructure.
[...]
Finally, the OTV edge device can be positioned in different parts of the data center. "
Question: 19
Which architecture provides a way to deliver end-to-end QoS as required by real-time voice and video business
applications?
A. IntServ
B. DiffServ
C. LLQ
D. ToS
E. DSCP
Answer: A
DiffServ is known as "Hop-by-Hop" and not "End-to-End"
Question: 20
CoS is applied for Layer 2 markings in an Ethernet environment. Which protocol must be configured on the Layer 2 switch port for CoS to work?
A. MPLS
B. IEEE 802.1W
C. IEEE 802.1Q
D. IEEE 802.1S
Answer: C
Question: 21
Which protocol is used in an in-band network and why?
A. UDP, because it is connectionless
B. SSH, because the username and password are encrypted
C. Telnet, because the username and password are sent in clear
D. MSDP, because it uses TCP as its transport protocol
Answer: B
CWAP-402 PDF Download
Question: 1
You are troubleshooting a connection problem with a client STA. Regardless of the AP to which it attempts to connect, the connection fails. Using a wired protocol analyzer, you determine that the problem is with the 802.1X/EAP authentication to the RADIUS server.
What layer or range of layers of the OSI model revealed this information?
A. Layer 3
B. Layer 2
C. Below Layer 3
D. Above Layer 4
Answer: A
Question: 2
iPerf is a tool used in what category of testing?
A. Configuration
B. Connection
C. Name resolution
D. Throughput
Answer: D
Question: 3
You are attempting to work through a user complaint with the CWNP-recommended troubleshooting methodology.
What must be clearly identified in order to reduce the number of possible causes at step three?
A. The user name
B. The problem
C. The device type
D. The user’s IP configuration
Answer: B
Question: 4
What action is taken automatically by 802.11 APs and client STAs as the signal strength of the link weakens in order to improve the quality of the RF communications overall?
A. Output power is increased
B. RSSI is increased
C. Data rates are reduced
D. Antenna gain is increased
Answer: C
Question: 5
You are explaining capacity planning to another engineer assisting you on a WLAN implementation project. As part of the explanation, you provide the following formula: C = B * log2(1 + S/N).
What does this formula define?
A. Bandwidth capabilities of a channel
B. The WEP encryption algorithm
C. Minimum signal strength for a data rate
D. Maximum signal strength of a channel
Answer: A
Question: 6
When evaluating modulation and coding schemes, you must determine the best coding rate available. In 802.11 MCS tables, what is the best coding rate from the perspective of highest data rates?
A. 5/6
B. 3/4
C. 2/3
D. 1/2
Answer: A
Question: 7
To what data rates can a 5 GHz PHY device shift when changers occur in the signal strength?
A. 11, 5.5, 2, 1
B. 24, 18, 12, 5.5
C. 24, 18, 11, 2
D. 24, 18, 12, 6
Answer: D
300-101 Test Certification
Question: 1
Refer to the exhibit.
Based on this FIB table, which statement is correct?
A. There is no default gateway.
B. The IP address of the router on FastEthernet is 209.168.201.1.
C. The gateway of last resort is 192.168.201.1.
D. The router will listen for all multicast traffic.
Answer: C
Question: 2
Refer to the exhibit.
A network administrator checks this adjacency table on a router. What is a possible cause for the incomplete marking?
A. incomplete ARP information
B. incorrect ACL
C. dynamic routing protocol failure
D. serial link congestion
Answer: A
Question: 3
A network engineer notices that transmission rates of senders of TCP traffic sharply increase and decrease simultaneously during periods of congestion. Which condition causes this?
A. global synchronization
B. tail drop
C. random early detection
D. queue management algorithm
Answer: A
Question: 4
Which three problems result from application mixing of UDP and TCP streams within a network with no QoS? (Choose three.)
A. starvation
B. jitter
C. latency
D. windowing
E. lower throughput
Answer: A, C, E
Question: 5
Which method allows IPv4 and IPv6 to work together without requiring both to be used for a single connection during the migration process?
A. dual-stack method
B. 6to4 tunneling
C. GRE tunneling
D. NAT-PT
Answer: A
Question: 6
Which statement about the use of tunneling to migrate to IPv6 is true?
A. Tunneling is less secure than dual stack or translation.
B. Tunneling is more difficult to configure than dual stack or translation.
C. Tunneling does not enable users of the new protocol to communicate with users of the old protocol without dual-stack hosts.
D. Tunneling destinations are manually determined by the IPv4 address in the low-order 32 bits of IPv4-compatible IPv6 addresses.
Answer: C
Question: 7
A network administrator executes the command clear ip route. Which two tables does this command clear and rebuild? (Choose two.)
A. IP routing
B. FIB
C. ARP cache
D. MAC address table
E. Cisco Express Forwarding table
F. topology table
Answer: A, B
Question: 8
Which switching method is used when entries are present in the output of the command show ip cache?
A. fast switching
B. process switching
C. Cisco Express Forwarding switching
D. cut-through packet switching
Answer: A
Question: 9
Which two actions must you perform to enable and use window scaling on a router? (Choose two.)
A. Execute the command ip tcp window-size 65536.
B. Set window scaling to be used on the remote host.
C. Execute the command ip tcp queuemax.
D. Set TCP options to "enabled" on the remote host.
E. Execute the command ip tcp adjust-mss.
Answer: A, B
Question: 10
Which three TCP enhancements can be used with TCP selective acknowledgments? (Choose three.)
A. header compression
B. explicit congestion notification
C. keepalive
D. time stamps
E. TCP path discovery
F. MTU window
Answer: B, C, D
Question: 11
A network administrator uses IP SLA to measure UDP performance and notices that packets on one router have a higher one-way delay compared to the opposite direction. Which UDP characteristic does this scenario describe?
A. latency
B. starvation
C. connectionless communication
D. nonsequencing unordered packets
E. jitter
Answer: A
Question: 12
Under which condition does UDP dominance occur?
A. when TCP traffic is in the same class as UDP
B. when UDP flows are assigned a lower priority queue
C. when WRED is enabled
D. when ACLs are in place to block TCP traffic
Answer: A
Question: 13
Prior to enabling PPPoE in a virtual private dialup network group, which task must be completed?
A. Disable CDP on the interface.
B. Execute the vpdn enable command.
C. Execute the no switchport command.
D. Enable QoS FIFO for PPPoE support.
Answer: B
Question: 14
A network engineer has been asked to ensure that the PPPoE connection is established and authenticated using an encrypted password. Which technology, in combination with PPPoE, can be used for authentication in this manner?
A. PAP
B. dot1x
C. IPsec
D. CHAP
E. ESP
Answer: D
Question: 15
A corporate policy requires PPPoE to be enabled and to maintain a connection with the ISP, even if no interesting traffic exists. Which feature can be used to accomplish this task?
A. TCP Adjust
B. Dialer Persistent
C. PPPoE Groups
D. half-bridging
E. Peer Neighbor Route
Answer: B
Question: 16
SIMULATION
Route.com is a small IT corporation that is attempting to implement the network shown in the exhibit. Currently the implementation is partially completed. OSPF has been configured on routers Chicago and NewYork. The SO/O interface on Chicago and the SO/1 interface on NewYork are in Area 0. The loopbackO interface on NewYork is in Area 1. However, they cannot ping from the serial interface of the Seattle router to the loopback interface of the NewYork router. You have been asked to complete the implementation to allow this ping.
ROUTE.com's corporate implementation guidelines require:
• The OSPF process ID for all routers must be 10.
• The routing protocol for each interface must be enabled under the routing process.
• The routing protocol must be enabled for each interface using the most specific wildcard mask possible.
- The serial link between Seattle and Chicago must be in OSPF area 21.
- OSPF area 21 must not receive any inter-area or external routes.
Network Information
Seattle
S0/0 192.168.16.5/30 - Link between Seattle and Chicago
Secret Password: cisco
Chicago
S0/0 192.168.54.9/30 - Link between Chicago and NewYork
S0/1 192.168.16.6/30 - Link between Seattle and Chicago Secre
Password: cisco
NewYork
S0/1 192.168.54.10/30 - Link between Chicago and NewYork
Loopback0 172.16.189.189
Secret Password: cisco
Answer: Here is the solution below:
Explanation:
Note: In actual exam, the IP addressing, OSPF areas and process ID, and router hostnames may change, but the overall solution is the same.
Seattle’s S0/0 IP Address is 192.168.16.5/30. So, we need to find the network address and wildcard mask of 192.168.16.5/30 in order to configure the OSPF.
IP Address: 192.168.16.5 /30
Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.252
Here subtract 252 from 2565, 256-252 = 4, hence the subnets will increment by 4.
First, find the 4th octet of the Network Address:
The 4th octet of IP address (192.168.16.5) belongs to subnet 1 (4 to 7).
Network Address: 192.168.16.4
Broadcast Address: 192.168.16.7
Lets find the wildcard mask of /30.
Subnet Mask: (Network Bits – 1’s, Host Bits – 0’s)
Lets find the wildcard mask of /30:
Now we configure OSPF using process ID 10 (note the process ID may change to something else in real exam).
Seattle>enable
Password:
Seattle#conf t
Seattle(config)#router ospf 10
Seattle(config-router)#network 192.168.16.4 0.0.0.3 area 21
One of the tasks states that area 21 should not receive any external or inter-area routes (except the default route).
Seattle(config-router)#area 21 stub
Seattle(config-router)#end
Seattle#copy run start
Chicago Configuration:
Chicago>enable
Password: cisco
Chicago#conf t
Chicago(config)#router ospf 10
We need to add Chicago’s S0/1 interface to Area 21
Chicago(config-router)#network 192.168.16.4 0.0.0.3 area 21
Again, area 21 should not receive any external or inter-area routes (except the default route).
In order to accomplish this, we must stop LSA Type 5 if we don’t want to send external routes. And if we don’t want to send inter-area routes, we have to stop LSA Type 3 and Type 4. Therefore we want to configure area 21 as a totally stubby area.
Chicago(config-router)#area 21 stub no-summary
Chicago(config-router)#end
Chicago#copy run start
The other interface on the Chicago router is already configured correctly in this scenario, as well as the New York router so there is nothing that needs to be done on that router.
70-345 Preparation Kits
Case Study: 1
Fabrikam inc.
Overview
Fabrikam. Inc. is an international manufacturing company that has 5,000 employees. The company has sales, marketing research and human resources departments.
Fabrikam has two main offices and three branch offices. The main offices are located in New York and London. The branch offices are located in Seattle, Montreal, and Paris.
The offices connect to each other by using a WAN link. Each office connects directly to the Internet. The WAN connections from the main offices to the branch offices are reliable.
Existing Environment
Exchange Environment
The Exchange Server organization contains servers that have either Exchange Server 2010 or Exchange Server 2013 installed. Each main office contains two Exchange Server 2013 servers. Each branch office contains one Exchange Server 2010 server.
MX records are configured to deliver email to the offices in New York and London. Email is delivered to the London office only if the New York office is unavailable.
Each office is configured to use a separate namespace for client access. The New York office is configured to use a namespace of mail.fabrikam.com.
The servers in the New York and London offices are members of a database availability group (DAG). Each mailbox database in the New York and London offices has three copies.
The technical support staff in the branch offices have administrative access to the existing Exchange servers and are assigned Organization Management permissions.
Users from the sales department frequently send email messages that contain the Social Security number of customers in the United States.
Problem Statements
Fabrikam identifies the following issues on the network:
• Users in the Paris office report that when launching Microsoft Outlook, they receive a security alert indicating a certificate name mismatch. The security alert is not generated when they connect to Outlook Web Access. Users from the other offices do not report receiving the security alert.
• Network administrators report that the mailbox databases in the New York office sometimes activate on the Exchange servers in the London office, resulting in poor performance for the New York office users.
Planned Changes
Fabrikam plans to implement the following changes to the network:
• Upgrade the organization to Exchange Server 2016 during the next six months.
• Enable online document viewing and editing from Outlook on the web.
High Availability Requirements
Fabrikam identifies the following high-availability requirements for the planned deployment:
• Mailbox databases that contain mailboxes for the New York office users must only be activated on the servers in the London office manually.
• All client access connections to the London and New York offices must use load-balanced namespaces. The load balancing mechanism must perform health checks.
Security and compliance requirements
Fabrikam identifies the following security and compliance requirements:
• After the planned upgrade, the maximum mailbox size must be 5 GB.
• Administrators from the branch offices must be able to view the mailbox properties and reset the passwords of the users, but must be prevented from changing the mailbox database configurations.
• Users who are involved in legal disputes with customers must be prevented from permanently deleting email messages pertaining to the dispute. The users must be able to delete all other messages permanently.
• If a user enters a Social Security number in an email message addressed to an external recipient, the user must receive a notification before sending the message If the user sends the message. The message must not be delivered. A compliance officer must be notified of the violation.
Connectivity requirements
Fabrikam identifies the following connectivity requirements:
• Connections for inbound and outbound email must be initiated and terminated from an Edge Transport server in the perimeter network.
• All external client connections from the branch office users must be proxied from the New York office to the branch offices.
• The number of namespaces used for client access must be minimized.
Question: 1
You need to recommend changes to the existing environment to meet the high-availability requirements for the mailbox databases. What should you recommend?
A. Run TheSet-MailBoxDatabasecmdlet.
B. Run theSet-DatabaseAvailabilityGroupcmdlet
C. Run theSet-MailBoxServercmdlet.
D. Run theSet-MailBoxDatabaseCopycmdlet.
Answer: B
Explanation:
References:
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dd297934(v=exchg.160).aspx
Question: 2
You begin to implement the Exchange Server 2016 servers and plan to decommission the Exchange Server 2013 servers during the next six months.
You need to recommend which actions must be performed to support the planned changes for document collaboration.
You install Microsoft Office Online Server on a new server.
Which two cmdlets should you recommend running next? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. New-OfficeWebAppsFarm
B. Set-PartnerApplication
C. Set-MailboxServer
D. New-OfficeWebAppsHost
E. Set-OrganizationConfig
Answer: A, C
Question: 3
You need to recommend a solution for the users involved in the legal disputes. What should you include in the recommendation?
A. a journal rule
B. an Outlook protection rule
C. an in-place Hold
D. a Litigation Hold
Answer: C
Explanation:
References:
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ff637980(v=exchg.160).aspx
Question: 4
You deploy Layer 7 load balancers to the New York and London offices.
You are planning the namespace configuration that will be used once you complete the planned upgrade to Exchange Server 2016.
You need to recommend a solution to meet the connectivity requirements for the namespaces.
What should you recommend?
A. On the New York office servers, change the internal URLs to mail.fabrikam.com.
B. On all of the branch office servers, change the external URLs to Snull.
C. On all of the branch office servers, change the external URLs to mail.fabnkam.com.
D. On the New York office servers, change the internal URLs to Snull.
Answer: C
Question: 5
You need to recommend changes to the messaging infrastructure. The changes must meet the connectivity requirements after the planned upgrade. Which two actions should you recommend? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. From the Mailbox servers, import the Edge Subscription file.
B. On the Edge Transport Servers, start Edge Synchronization.
C. On the Edge Transport servers, import the Edge Subscription file.
D. On the Edge Transport servers, create an Edge Subscription file.
E. On the Mailbox servers, restart the Microsoft Exchange Transport service.
Answer: A, E
Question: 6
You need to recommend changes to the existing environment to meet the high-availability requirements for the mailbox databases. What should you recommend?
A. Run the Suspend-MailboxDatabaseCopy cmdlet
B. Run the Update-MailboxDatabaseCopy cmdlet.
C. Deploy a file share witness to a branch office.
D. Modify the cluster resource properties.
Answer: D
Question: 7
HOTSPOT
You need to configure a data loss prevention (DLP) policy to meet the compliance and security requirements.
How should you configure the policy rule? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Answer:
MB2-718 Free Demo Practice
Question: 1
Your organization plans to use Voice of the Customer to send surveys to select groups of customers. You need to customize branding colors and logos for the surveys. What should you do?
A. Modify Voice of the Customer survey themes.
B. Configure system settings.
C. Modify Microsoft Dynamics 365 themes.
D. Update Voice of the Customer piped data.
Answer: A
Question: 2
Which three actions can you perform by using editable grids? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Update a lookup fie4d to a custom entity.
B. Edit records by using mobile clients.
C. Group records by a specific column.
D. Update a Customer Type lookup field.
E. Update the value of an Owner lookup field.
Answer: A, B, C
Question: 3
You plan to create surveys for a multinational company that manages hotels. You must create a unique survey for each hotel location. Which statement is true?
A. You can capture up to 10,000 survey responses per day.
B. You can store unlimited survey responses over time.
C. You can publish a maximum of 200 surveys.
D. All surveys must use the same theme.
Answer: C
Question: 4
You are creating a new survey with the Voice of the Customer Survey designer.
Which two statements regarding the Voice of the Customer Survey designer are true? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. The Complete page must always display last.
B. The Welcome page must always display first.
C. Surveys can have up to three pages.
D. Surveys can contain unlimited questions.
Answer: A B
Question: 5
You need to implement Microsoft Power BI to analyze and visualize data.
Which two actions can you perform? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Use iframes to display content
B. Implement custom visualizations.
C. Use a file that is stored in Microsoft OneDrive as a data source.
D. Display the most recent version of the data always.
Answer: A, B
N10-006 Free PDF Demo
Question: 1
A technician needs to limit the amount of broadcast traffic on a network and allow different segments to communicate with each other. Which of the following options would satisfy these requirements?
A. Add a router and enable OSPF.
B. Add a layer 3 switch and create a VLAN.
C. Add a bridge between two switches.
D. Add a firewall and implement proper ACL.
Answer: B
Explanation:
We can limit the amount of broadcast traffic on a switched network by dividing the computers into logical network segments called VLANs.
A virtual local area network (VLAN) is a logical group of computers that appear to be on the same LAN even if they are on separate IP subnets. These logical subnets are configured in the network switches. Each VLAN is a broadcast domain meaning that only computers within the same VLAN will receive broadcast traffic.
Toallow different segments (VLAN) to communicate with each other, a router is required to establish a connection between the systems. We can use a network router to route between the VLANs or we can use a ‘Layer 3’ switch. Unlike layer 2 switches that can only read the contents of the data-link layer protocol header in the packets they process, layer 3 switches can read the (IP) addresses in the network layer protocol header as well.
Question: 2
The network install is failing redundancy testing at the MDF. The traffic being transported is a mixture of multicast and unicast signals. Which of the following would BEST handle the rerouting caused by the disruption of service?
A. Layer 3 switch
B. Proxy server
C. Layer 2 switch
D. Smart hub
Answer: A
Explanation:
The question states that the traffic being transported is a mixture of multicast and unicast signals. There are three basic types of network transmissions: broadcasts, which are packets transmitted to every node on the network; unicasts,which are packets transmitted to just one node; and multicasts, which are packets transmitted to a group of nodes. Multicast is a layer 3 feature of IPv4 & IPv6. Therefore, we would need a layer 3 switch (or a router) to reroute the traffic. Unlike layer 2switches that can only read the contents of the data-link layer protocol header in the packets they process, layer 3 switches can read the (IP) addresses in the network layer protocol header as well.
Question: 3
Which of the following network devices use ACLs to prevent unauthorized access into company systems?
A. IDS
B. Firewall
C. Content filter
D. Load balancer
Answer: B
Explanation:
A firewall is a system designed to prevent unauthorized access to or from a private network. Firewalls arefrequently used to prevent unauthorized Internet users from accessing privatenetworks connected to the Internet, especially intranets. Firewalls use ACLs (access control lists) to determine which traffic is allowed through the firewall. All traffic entering or leaving the intranet passes through the firewall, which examines each message and blocks or allows the message depending on rules specified in the ACL. The rules in the ACL specify which combinations of source IP address, destination address in IP port numbers are allowed.
Question: 4
Which of the following is used to define how much bandwidth can be used by various protocols on the network?
A. Traffic shaping
B. High availability
C. Load balancing
D. Fault tolerance
Answer: A
Explanation:
If a network connection becomes saturated to the point where there is a significant level of contention, network latency can rise substantially.
Traffic shaping is used to control the bandwidth used by network traffic. In a corporate environment, business-related traffic may be given priority over other traffic. Traffic can be prioritized based on the ports used by the application sending the traffic. Delayed traffic is stored in a buffer until the higher priority traffic has been sent.
Question: 5
Which of the following is used to authenticate remote workers who connect from offsite? (Select TWO).
A. OSPF
B. VTP trunking
C. Virtual PBX
D. RADIUS
E. 802.1x
Answer: D,E
Explanation:
D: A RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-in User Service)server is a server with a database of user accounts and passwords used as a central authentication database for users requiring network access. RADIUS servers are commonly used by ISP’s to authenticate their customer’s Internet connections.
Remote users connect to one or more Remote Access Servers. The remote access servers then forward the authentication requests to the central RADIUS server.
E: 802.1X is an IEEE Standard for Port-based Network Access Control (PNAC). It provides an authentication mechanism to devices wishing to attach to a network.
802.1X authentication involves three parties: a supplicant, an authenticator, and an authentication server. The supplicant is a client that wishes to attach to the network. The authenticator is a network device,such as an Ethernet switch, wireless access point or in this case, a remote access server and the authentication server is the RADIUS server.
Question: 6
Which of the following provides accounting, authorization, and authentication via a centralized privileged database, as well as, challenge/response and password encryption?
A. Multifactor authentication
B. ISAKMP
C. TACACS+
D. Network access control
Answer: C
Explanation:
TACACS+ (Terminal Access Controller Access-Control System Plus) is aprotocol that handles authentication, authorization, and accounting (AAA) services. Similar to RADIUS, TACACS+ is a centralized authentication solution used to provide access to network resources. TACACS+ separates the authentication, authorization, and accounting services enabling you to host each service on a separate server if required.
Question: 7
A technician needs to set aside addresses in a DHCP pool so that certain servers always receive the same address. Which of the following should be configured?
A. Leases
B. Helper addresses
C. Scopes
D. Reservations
Answer: D
Explanation:
A reservation is used in DHCP to ensure that a computer always receives the same IP address. To create a reservation, you need to know the hardware MAC address ofthe network interface card that should receive the IP address.
For example, if Server1 has MAC address of 00:A1:FB:12:45:4C and that computer should always get 192.168.0.7 as its IP address, you can map the MAC address of Server1 with the IP address to configure reservation.
Question: 8
Joe, a network technician, is setting up a DHCP server on a LAN segment. Which of the following options should Joe configure in the DHCP scope, in order to allow hosts on that LAN segment using dynamic IP addresses, to be able to access the Internet and internal company servers? (Select THREE).
A. Default gateway
B. Subnet mask
C. Reservations
D. TFTP server
E. Lease expiration time of 1 day
F. DNS servers
G. Bootp
Answer: A,B,F
VCS-322 PDF Training Guides
Question: 1
What are two capabilities of enabling Veritas Enterprise Vault 12.x for Exchange for Outlook Web Access/App (OWA) users? (Select two.)
A. enables remote access via OWA with Safari browser
B. provides remote access to multiple user archives
C. enables IMAP access for mobile devices
D. enables Virtual Vault for OWA users
E. enables Vault Cache for OWA users
Answer: A, B
Question: 2
What are two benefits of Veritas Enterprise Vault 12.x for Exchange? (Select two.)
A. it archives directly to tape
B. it facilitates faster backup of the messaging servers
C. it is unnecessary to backup Exchange when Journaling is enabled
D. it automatically duplicates archive data
E. it provides OSIS for archived email
Answer: B, E
Question: 3
Which two key benefits are provided by Veritas Enterprise Vault 12.x ? (Select two.)
A. it natively archives all structured data
B. it archives unstructured data
C. it allows administrators to import PST files into the archive
D. it eliminates the need for backups
E. it eliminates the need for centralized information management
Answer: B, C
Question: 4
Veritas Enterprise Vault 12.x for Exchange converts mail message attachments in order to ensure future proofing.
Which file format is used?
A. .dvs
B. .xml
C. .html
D. .tif
Answer: C
Question: 5
How many document types can be converted by Veritas Enterprise Vault 12.x indexing?
A. less than 100
B. approximately 200
C. approximately 400
D. more than 1000
Answer: C
Question: 6
Which task requires the permissions of the Vault Service Account as a minimum in Veritas Enterprise Vault 12.x ?
A. managing and assigning custom roles
B. defining an Exchange Mailbox Archiving Policy
C. verifying connectivity to the SQL server
D. restarting the Enterprise Vault 12.x for Exchange services
Answer: A
Question: 7
Which two components comprise the Veritas Enterprise Vault 12.x for Exchange Directory? (Select two.)
A. Directory Fingerprint database
B. Directory Service
C. Directory SQL database
D. Directory Administration Role
E. Directory Provisioning Task
Answer: B, C
Question: 8
Which function is controlled by the Enterprise Vault Admin Service?
A. managing access to databases for other Enterprise Vault components
B. defining which users' data is processed
C. warning if virtual memory is running low
D. managing the mail and file servers from which data is archived
Answer: C
Question: 9
An administrator enables the Metadata Store in Veritas Enterprise Vault 12.x .
Which Enterprise Vault components will be impacted by the change?
A. Enterprise Vault Index
B. Storage queue
C. MS SQL server and the space that the databases require
D. Vault Store size
Answer: C
Question: 10
An organization uses three Exchange servers in a single domain and two Veritas Enterprise Vault 12.x for Exchange (EV) servers.
How many Provisioning tasks are required?
A. one per target domain
B. one per EV server
C. one per Exchange server
D. one per EV Directory
Answer: A
Question: 11
An organization needs to use the Update Service Locations (USL) feature of Veritas Enterprise Vault 12.x for Exchange (EV).
Which two physical EV resources must be remote to the EV servers for this feature to work seamlessly? (Select two.)
A. SQL Server
B. Archiving targets
C. Index Server Groups
D. Vault Store Partitions
E. Message Queuing
Answer: A, D
Question: 12
Of which security group must the Vault Service Account be a member?
A. the Application Administrators Group of the Enterprise Vault server
B. the Exchange Administrators Group on each Exchange server
C. the Local Administrators Group of the Enterprise Vault server
D. the Built-in Exchange Organization Administrators Group
Answer: C
Question: 13
What is the Veritas recommended amount of memory required for Veritas Enterprise Vault 12.x ?
A. 8GB
B. 16GB
C. 32GB
D. 64GB
Answer: B
Question: 14
Where is the Enterprise Vault system mailbox created?
A. on active members of a Database Availability Group only
B. on the Global Catalog server in the domain
C. on each target Exchange server in the domain
D. on the first Exchange server in the domain
Answer: C
Question: 15
When a user is enabled for archiving, an e-mail is sent from the Enterprise Vault system mailbox.
Which permissions must be granted to the Vault Service Account for this feature to work properly?
A. Log on as a service
B. Receive As
C. Log on remotely
D. Send As
Answer: C
MB6-893 Exam Dumps
Question: 1
Your company is using basic budgeting and is planning to configure budget control.
You need to identify the additional configuration that is needed.
Which three components will already be configured as s part of the basic Budgeting setup? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. budget models
B. budget exchange rates
C. over budget permissions
D. budget cycles
E. documents and journals
Answer: C D E
Question: 2
You are setting up the budgeting module for your employer and are given a list of budget codes needed in the system.
You want to create a "Preliminary" budget code but are unable to select it on the "budget Codes" form.
Which configuration key enables "Preliminary" and "Apportionments" budget types?
A. General Ledger – advanced II configuration key
B. Budget control configuration key
C. General Ledger configuration key
D. Public Sector configuration key
Answer: A
Question: 3
You decide that department managers must submit budget plans to you each quarter.
You need to use the budget planning template wizard to generate a budget planning template that each department submit to you.
What are three prerequisites for creating a template for budget plan worksheets? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Create a budget plan and review its information by using a worksheet template.
B. Decide which matrix fields to creat.
C. Select the worksheet template to use for the budget planning process.
D. Decide which fields to use for the header.
E Decide which columns to include on the worksheet.
Answer: A B D
Question: 4
You need all budget transfers to use a workflow except the specific members of the budget transfer rules.
When creating a budget transfer rule, what information is used to define when transfers are allowed?
A. the dimensions on the transfer
B. the amount of the transfer
C. the date of the transfer
D. the employee requesting the transfer
Answer: C
Question: 5
Your company is considering tracking budgets by Account, Department, and Cost Center dimensions. There is a requirement to prevent exceeding the budgeted amounts for each Department but not for each Cost Center.
Which three actions must be performed to allow budget control for Accounts and Department, and basic budgeting by Account, Departments, and Cost Center, before budget control is enabled? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Select only “MainAccount” and “Department” as budgeting dimensions.
B. Select the main accounts for budget control.
C. Select only “MainAccount” and “Department” as budget control dimensions.
D. Select only “Department” as a budget control dimension.
E. Select only “MainAccount,” “Department” and “CostCenter” as budgeting dimensions.
Answer: B C D
Question: 6
You are creating a budget register entry. You notice that a manual budget reservation will exceed the budget.
What should you do within the budget register entry to satisfy the over-budget condition?
A. enter recurrence
B. transfer balances
C. allocate across periods
D. allocate across dimensions
Answer: A
Question: 7
You are creating a new budget and realize that you need to allocate a certain percentage of the total budget amount across defined periods.
In order to do this on the budget register entry, you need to define the percentage that will be allocated in each period.
What should you set up in order to achieve this goal?
A. budget transfer
B. period allocation key
C. budget allocation term
D. budget cycle
Answer: D
Question: 8
You are an accountant.
You are creating your travel expense budget for the fiscal year and want to enter the same budget amount for each month.
On the budget register entry, which option should you choose?
A. transfer balances
B. allocate across dimensions
C. enter recurrence
D. allocate across periods
Answer: A
Question: 9
You are the director of finance.
You are starting to create budgets for the fiscal year and want to generate budget plans from source information.
Which three options can you choose from in Microsoft Dynamics AX Financials? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Generate budget plan from general ledger.
B. Generate budget plan from fixed assets
C. Generate budget plan from forecast positions
D. Generate budget plan from yearly sales
E. Generate budget plans from yearly purchases
Answer: B D E
MB2-715 Test Certification
Question: 1
You are the system administrator at your organization.
You need to quickly synchronize all customizations from your synchronizing the data.
What should you perform to accomplish this goal?
A. a clone
B. a switch
C. a full copy
D. a minimal copy
Answer: D
Question: 2
You are a system administrator at Contoso. Inc.
You need to ensure that only system administrators and system customizers
What is likely the cause of this issue?
A. Your instance is being upgraded.
B. Your storage limit was reached.
C. Your instance is in Administration mode.
D. Your instance has been reset
Answer: A
Question: 3
You are a system administrator using Microsoft Dynamics 365.
You received an email informing you that you need to schedule the December 2016 update: however, you skipped the June 2016 update.
Which of the following is true?
A. You can schedule the December 2016 update without scheduling the June 2016 update.
B. You can skip both updates and schedule all to be completed when the June 2017 update is available.
C. You must schedule the June 2016 update before you can schedule the December 2016 update.
D. You can schedule both updates to be completed at the same time.
Answer: B
Question: 4
You are the system administrator for an organization that has a Microsoft Dynamics 365 deployment hosted in country/region 1.
Your organization just acquired a new company in country/region 2.
You need to ensure that the instance created for the users of the acquired company does not share storage space with all of your current instances.
What should you create to accomplish this goal?
A. a new production instance in country/region 1 on your existing tenant
B. a new production instance in a new tenant in country/region 2
C. a new sandbox instance in country/region 2 on your existing tenant
D. a new production instance in country/region 2 on your existing tenant
Answer: D
Question: 5
You are the system administrator at Contoso, Inc.
You have imported 3 GB of data into an instance, but the storage utilization for your subscription does not reflect the used storage space.
What is causing this discrepancy?
A. You imported the data into a sandbox instance.
B. Custom indexing is enabled on your instance.
C. You imported the data into a preview instance.
D. Data utilization is calculated every 48 hours.
Answer: A
MB6-890 Preparation Kits
Question: 1
Which component of Microsoft Dynamics AX enforces user-specific data security on the data store and database?
A. UI Interaction Layer (WCF)
B. Data Access Layer (DAL)
C. OData Endpoint (WCF)
D. Form Engine
Answer: B
Question: 2
You need to verify the properties related to a specific table in the AOT, and you do not have a project The properties pane is already open in Visual Studio.
Which component do you need to use to select the table in order to see the properties?
A. Application Explorer
B. Object Browser
C. Solution Explorer
D. Code Definition Window
Answer: D
Question: 3
You are explaining the structure of a model to your client
Which two pieces of information should you provide to your client? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Models can contain elements.
B. Models can be associated with multiple Microsoft Visual Studio AX projects.
C. Models can contain data.
D. Models can contain multiple packages.
Answer: A
Question: 4
You are using Visual Studio to manage development with Microsoft Dynamics AX. You need to complete a project for use within the application. Which step must be performed?
A. best practice check
B. synchronization
C. build
D. validation
Answer: A
Question: 5
You are required to configure a Microsoft Dynamics AX production environment for your customer.
You need to configure the Dynamics AX server as part of the overall installation and configuration.
Which two components can be used to deploy the server? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Database
B. Azure Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) Virtual Machines
C. Windows PowerShell Commands
D. Internet Information Services (DA) web application
Answer: AB
JN0-410 Real PDF Exam Material
Question: 1
What are two valid service VMs in a service chain? (Choose two.)
A. gateway
B. load balancer
C. orchestrator
D. firewall
Answer: B,D
Question: 2
Which role does OpenStack serve in SDN?
A. vRouter
B. controller
C. gateway
D. orchestrator
Answer: D
Question: 3
Which statement about Contrail Analytics collection is true?
A. Contrail can collect all flows and all packets.
B. Contrail can collect all packets while sampling flows.
C. Contrail can collect all bytes while being able to sample packets.
D. Contrail can collect all flows while being able to sample bytes.
Answer: B
Question: 4
What are three functions of an SDN controller? (Choose three.)
A. An SDN controller uses northbound APIs to manage applications and business logic.
B. An SDN controller functions as a gateway for the virtual machines in the SDN.
C. An SDN controller uses federated date between SDN controller domains.
D. An SDN controller uses southbound APIs to manage flow control to the switches and routers in the network.
E. An SDN controller uses federated routes between BGP autonomous systems.
Answer: A,D,E
Question: 5
Which type of query is generated by the curl Error! Hyperlink reference not valid. address>:8081/analytics/uves/vrouters command?
A. REST
B. SQL
C. SSL
D. XML
Answer: A
Question: 6
Which two storage types are provided by OpenStack Cinder? (Choose two.)
A. local storage using attached disks or SSDs
B. object storage using containers
C. remote storage using standard protocols such as iSCSI, Fibre Channel, and NFS
D. disk images using the Image Store
Answer: A, C
CWNA-106 Practice
Question: 1
What word describes the bending of an RF signal as it passes through a medium of a varying density from that of free space?
A. Diffraction
B. Reflection
C. Refraction
D. Diffusion
E. Scattering
Answer: C
Question: 2
What can cause an excessively high VSWR (Voltage Standing Wave Ratio) in a WLAN RF transmission line?
A. An impedance mismatch inthe RF cables and connectors
B. Reflected direct current (DC) voltage on the main RF signal line
C. Attenuation of the RF signal as it travels along the main signal path
D. Crosstalk (inductance) between adjacent RF conductors
Answer: A
Question: 3
What factors influence the distance that an RF signal can be effectively received? (Choose 3)
A. Transmitting station’s power source
B. Receiving station’s radio sensitivity
C. Free Space Path Loss
D. MAC layer encryption
E. Transmitting station’soutput power
F. Temperature in the Fresnel zone
Answer: B, C, E
Question: 4
As an RF wave propagates through space, the wave front experiences natural expansion that reduces its signal strength in an are
a. What term describes the rate at which this expansion happens?
A. MU-MIMO
B. Inverse square law
C. Fresnel zone thinning
D. Ohm’s law
Answer: B
Question: 5
Return Loss is the decrease of forward energy in a system when some of the power is being reflected back toward the transmitter.
What will cause high return loss in an RF transmission system, including the radio, cables, connectors and antenna?
A. A Voltage Standing Wave Ratio (VSWR) of 1:1
B. An impedance mismatch between components in the RF system
C. The use of cables longer than onemeter in the RF system
D. High output power at the transmitter and use of a low-gain antenna
Answer: B
Question: 6
What factors are taken into account when calculating the Link Budget of a point-to-point outdoor WLAN bridge link?
A. Operating frequency
B. Transmit antenna gain
C. Transmit power
D. Antenna height
Answer: A, B, C
Question: 7
A WLAN transmitter that emits a 200 mW signal is connected to a cable with 3 dB loss.
If the cable is connected to an antenna with 10 dBi gain, what is the EIRP at the antenna element?
A. 10 dBm
B. 13 dBm
C. 20 dBm
D. 26 dBm
E. 30 dBm
Answer: E
Question: 8
In a long-distance RF link, what statement about Fade Margin is true?
A. Fade Margin is an additional pad of signal strength designed into theRF system to compensate for unpredictable signal fading.
B. The Fade Margin of a long-distance radio link should be equivalent to the receiver’s antenna gain.
C. A Fade Margin is unnecessary on a long-distance RF link if more than 80% of the first Fresnelzone is clear of obstructions.
D. The Fade Margin is a measurement of signal loss through free space, and is a function of frequency and distance.
Answer: A
Question: 9
Which unit of measurement is an absolute unit that is used to quantify power levels on a linear scale?
A. dBm
B. SNR
C. RSSI
D. VSWR
Answer: A
Question: 10
An 802.11 WLAN transmitter that emits a 50 mW signal is connected to a cable with 3 dB of loss. The cable is connected to an antenna with 16 dBi of gain.
What is the EIRP power output?
A. 2 mW
B. 500 mW
C. 250 mW
D. 1000 mW
Answer: D
MB2-714 Study Guides
Question: 1
You have two sites.
You need to ensure that all of the resources for a scheduling activity are from the same site.
What should you use?
A. a selection rule
B. a resource group
C. a service level agreement (SLA)
D. a field security profile
Answer: C
Question: 2
You plan to create a service activity.
You need to identify which types of participant can have defined work hours.
Which two participant types should you identify?
Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. resource group
B. site
C. user
D. equipment
Answer: BC
Question: 3
You implement Unified Service Desk in your Dynamics CRM organization.
You need to add a button to a Unified Service Desk toolbar that will load a CRM page to a hosted control when the button is clicked.
What are two Unified Service Desk components that you can use to achieve the goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. forms
B. action calls
C. scriptlets
D. Window navigation rules
Answer: AB
Question: 4
You are a customer service representative.
You use the interactive service hub and a multi-stream interactive dashboard.
At the beginning of your shift, you need to view the high-priority open cases and to move them to one queue. What should you do first?
A. Perform an Advanced Find.
B. Perform a Global Search.
C. Apply a hierarchal view.
D. Apply a global filter.
Answer: D
Question: 5
You work for a call center that uses Dynamics CRM for case management. You need to recommend a solution that meets the following requirements:
• Provides customer service representatives with a pop-up window initiated by the phone system
• Provides a mechanism to view data*from several different line-of-business applications based on contextual information in CRM
Which technology should you include in the recommendation?
A. the interactive service hub
B. FieldOne
C. Microsoft Parature
D. Unified Service Desk
Answer: B
Question: 6
You have a service that is used to schedule the delivery of products to local customers. The service contains a resource group. The resource group contains equipment that represents 10 delivery vans.
You need to ensure that you maximize the use of each delivery van. while performing as many dciivenes as possible.
What should you configure?
A. a selection rule as Least Busy
B. the available capacity of the service scheduling rule
C. the van work hours as non-overlapping
D. a selection rule as Most Busy
Answer: D
Question: 7
You have an equipment resource for a forklift.
Several scheduling activities are configured to use the forklift.
The forklift breaks down and is sent for repairs.
You set the work hours for the forklift to unavailable.
You need to identify what will occur to the scheduling activities that require the forklift.
What should you identify?
A. The scheduling activities will be added to a queue.
B. The scheduling activities will continue as scheduled.
C. The scheduling activities will be scheduled automatically for the next available time.
D. The scheduling activities will be deactivated.
Answer: D
Question: 8
Your Dynamics CRM organization uses the interactive service hub.
You need to identify which security role must be assigned to you before you can create a new interactive dashboard.
What are two possible security roles that will achieve the goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Activity Feeds
B. System Administrator
C. System Customizer
D. Customer Service Manager
Answer: C
Question: 9
You plan to create a service activity.
You need to identify which resources can be added to the service activity.
What are two possible resources that you can add to the service activity? Each correct answer presents a complete solution,
A. a user
B. a territory
C. a business unit
D. a facility
Answer: A
Question: 10
You have a Dynamics CRM organization.
You need to recommend which technology can be used to integrate CRM to a telephony system and to provide call scripts from within CRM cases.
Which technology should you recommend?
A. Microsoft Parature
B. the Engagement Hub
C. the interactive service hub
D. the Integrated Desktop Agent
Answer: D
MB2-711 Study Guides
Question: 1
You are the primary technical resource for an enterprise deployment of Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 on-premises that has 300 seats.
You are asked about hardware requirements for Microsoft SQL Server.
You need to make the appropriate recommendation.
What are the hardware requirements for SQL Server for this organization?
A. Dual-core x64 architecture 1.5 GHz processor, 4 GB RAM. and SAS RAID 0 hard disk array
B. Dual-core x64 architecture 1.5 GHz processor, 4 GB RAM. and SAS RAID 5 hard disk array
C. Intel Xeon Phi Coprocessors, 64-GB RAM, and PCI Express Solid State Storage
D. Quad-core x64 architecture 2 GHz AMD Opteron processor. 16-GB RAM, and SAS RAID 5 hard disk array
Answer: A
Question: 2
Your organization uses Microsoft Exchange Online and you deploy Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 on-premises. You need to synchronize records between the Microsoft Dynamics CRM Server and Exchange Online. What is the supported synchronization method for this scenario?
A. folder-level tracking
B. Email Router
C. smart matching
D. server-side synchronization
Answer: C
Question: 3
Which service can you categorize as a Back End Server role?
A. Email Integration Service
B. Help Server
C. Volume Shadow Copy Service (VSS) Writer service
D. Deployment Web Service
Answer: D
Question: 4
You are the primary technical resource for a Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 on-premises installation. While completing the discovery phase, you find that the domain is running directory service forest and domain functional level of Windows Server 2003.
When you report your findings, you are informed that the organization is running legacy applications and could not upgrade functional levels when they began upgrading their servers several years ago. They understand that the software vendor has made updates and will investigate if new domain service functional levels are supported.
You need to inform them of the minimally supported Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) functional level for Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 on-premises.
What is the minimally supported AD DS functional level?
A. Windows Server 2003 R2
B. Windows Server 2008
C. Windows Server 2008 R2
D. Windows Server 2012
Answer: A
Question: 5
Which two operating systems are supported for Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Windows Server 2012 R2 Datacenter Edition
B. Windows Server 2012 R2 Essentials Edition
C. Windows Server 2012 Foundation Edition
D. Windows Server 2012 Standard Edition
Answer: AD
Question: 6
You review the browsers available on client machines for a Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 installation.
There are:
• 47 Windows 7 devices with Internet Explorer 9.
• 17 Apple devices with the latest version of Safari.
• 5 Google Chromebooks with the latest version of Chrome.
• 105 Windows 7 systems with the latest version of Mozilla Firefox.
You need to determine the number of browsers that will need an upgrade to support the Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 web client
How many web browsers will need an upgrade?
A. 5
B. 17
C. 47
D. 105
Answer: C
Question: 7
You are performing a full server Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 setup on a server named CRM01. You will use a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 Enterprise. 64-bit SP1 named SQL01 for the setup.
If not already installed, which three components will be installed during the setup? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. SQL Server Reporting Services in SQL01
B. Internet Information Services (IIS) in CRM01
C. Windows PowerShell in CRM01
D. CRMAppPool Internet Information Services (IIS) application pool in CRM01
E. SQLAccessGroup in Active Directory
Answer: CDE
Question: 8
You manage a Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 on-premises installation.
You need to determine what is gained by installing Microsoft Dynamics CRM Reporting Extensions.
What are three benefits of installing the Microsoft Dynamics CRM Reporting Extensions? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Reports authored in Transact-SQL are translated to Fetch XML
B. Removes the need to configure trust for delegation
C. Enables the use of SharePoint mode in SQL Reporting Services
D. Support for fetch-based reports
E. Allows you to create or import an organization
Answer: ADE
Question: 9
You are installing the Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 Email Router.
Which two operating systems are supported? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Windows Vista 64-bit
B. Windows 7 32-bit
C. Windows Server 2008 R2 64-bit
D. Windows Server 2012 64-bit
Answer: BC
Question: 10
Your organization decides to install Microsoft Dynamics CRM on-premises in North America and uses Microsoft Dynamics CRM Online to support its European operations. You will need to share customizations including report definitions.
You need to be able to share report definitions between both the North American and European operations.
What should you consider when sharing report definitions between an on-premises installation and an Online installation?
A. You must install the Microsoft Dynamics CRM Reporting Extensions when creating the re
B. Reports must be created using Transact-SQL
C. Reports must be created using Fetch XML
D. You must use Microsoft Power BI for all reports.
Answer: C
HPE6-A14 PDF Training Guides
Question: 1
Which of the following is a benefit of ClearPass OnGuard?
A. Allows employees and other non-IT staff to create temporary accounts for Wi-Fi access.
B. Offers an easy way for users to self-configure their devices to support 802.1X authentication on wired and wireless networks.
C. Enables organizations to run advanced endpoint posture assessments.
D. Offers full self-service provisioning for personal employee owned devices.
E. Allows a receptionist in a hotel to create accounts for guest users.
Answer: C
Question: 2
A customer would like to deploy ClearPass with the following objectives: they have 2000 devices that need to be onboarded, 2000 corporate devices running posture checks daily, and 500 different guest users each day authenticating using the web login feature.
Which of the following best describes the license mix that they need to purchase?
A. CP-HW-500, 2500 Clearpass Enterprise
B. CP-HW-5k, 2500 Clearpass Enterprise
C. CP-HW-5k, 4500 Clearpass Enterprise
D. CP-HW-25k, 4500 Clearpass Enterprise
E. CP-HW-25k, 4000 Clearpass Enterprise
Answer: D
Question: 3
A customer would like to deploy ClearPass with the following objectives: they have 3000 corporate laptops doing EAP-TLS authentication daily, 1000 personal smartphone devices that need to be onboarded. The corporate laptops are required to pass a posture check before getting access to the network.
Which of the following best describes the license mix that they need to purchase?
A. CP-HW-5k, 1000 Clearpass Enterprise
B. CP-HW-5k, 1000 Onboard, 3000 Onguard
C. CP-HW-25k, 1000 Clearpass Enterprise
D. CP-HW-25k, 1000 Onboard, 3000 Onguard
E. CP-HW-25k, 3000 Onguard
Answer: B
Question: 4
A customer would like to deploy ClearPass with the following objectives: Every day, 100 employees authenticate with their corporate laptops using EAP-TLS. Every Friday, there is a meeting with business partners and an additional 50 devices authenticate using Web Login Guest Authentication.
Which of the following is correct? (Choose 2)
A. When counting policy manager licenses, they need to include the additional 50 business partner devices
B. When counting policy manager licenses, they can exclude the additional 50 business partner devices
C. They should purchase guest licenses
D. They should purchase onboard licenses
E. They should purchase onguard licenses
Answer: A, C
Question: 5
Which licenses are included in the built in Starter kit for Clearpass?
A. 25 ClearPass Policy Manager licenses
B. 25 Clearpass Enterprise licenses
C. 10 ClearPass Guest licenses, 10 ClearPass OnGuard licenses and 10 ClearPass Onboard licenses
D. 25 ClearPass Profiler licenses
E. 10 Clearpass Enterprise licenses
Answer: B
Question: 6
What is the function of ClearPass Onboard?
A. Provide guest access for visitors to connect to the network
B. Process authentication requests based on policy services
C. Profile devices connecting to the network
D. Provision personal devices to securely connect to the network
E. To allow a windows machine to use machine authentication to access the network
Answer: D
Question: 7
What is the Onboard license usage based on?
A. Each user connected to the provisioning SSID uses 1 Onboard license.
B. Each user authenticated using the Onboard credential uses 1 Onboard license.
C. Each user provisioned using the Onboard process uses 1 Onboard license.
D. Each user that has the OnGuard agent downloaded uses 1 Onboard license.
E. Each user that downloads the Onboard application to their iOS device uses 1 Onboard license.
Answer: C
Question: 8
An employee provisions their personal smart phone using the Onboard process. In addition, they have a corporate laptop given to them by IT that connects to the secure network. How many licenses does the user consume?
A. 1 Policy Manager license, 1 Onboard License.
B. 1 Policy Manager license, 1 Guest License.
C. 2 Policy Manager licenses, 1 Onboard License.
D. 2 Policy Manager licenses, 2 Onboard Licenses.
E. 1 Policy Manager license, 2 Guest licenses.
Answer: C
Question: 9
An employee authenticates using their corporate laptop and runs the dissolvable onguard agent to send a health check back the Policy Manager. Based on the health of the device a VLAN is assigned to the corporate laptop.
Which licenses are consumed in this scenario?
A. 1 Policy Manager license, 1 Onboard License.
B. 1 Policy Manager license, 1 OnGuard License.
C. 2 Policy Manager licenses, 1 OnGuard License.
D. 1 Policy Manager license, 1 Profile License.
E. 2 Policy Manager licenses, 2 Onguard licenses.
Answer: B
Question: 10
A customer would like to deploy ClearPass with the following objectives: they have between 2000 to 3000 corporate users that need to authenticate daily using EAP-TLS. They want to allow for up to 1000 employee devices to be onboarded. They would also like to allow up to 100 different guest users each day to authenticate using the web login feature.
Which of the following best describes the license mix that they need to purchase?
A. CP-HW-5k, 100 Onboard, 100 Guest.
B. CP-HW-500, 1000 Onboard, 100 Guest.
C. CP-HW-2k, 1000 Onboard, 100 Guest.
D. CP-HW-5k, 2500 Enterprise.
E. CP-HW-5k, 1000 Enterprise.
Answer: D
Question: 11
Which of the following statements is true about the Endpoint Profiler? (Choose 2)
A. The Endpoint Profiler requires the Onboard license to be enabled.
B. The Endpoint Profiler uses DHCP fingerprinting for device categorization.
C. Data obtained from the Endpoint Profiler can be used in Enforcement Policy.
D. The Endpoint Profiler can only categorize laptops and desktops.
E. Endpoint Profiler requires a profiling license.
Answer: B, C
Question: 12
Which of the following methods can be used as collectors for device profiling? (Choose 2)
A. OnGuard agent
B. Active Directory Attributes
C. ActiveSync Plugin
D. Username and Password
E. Client's role on the controller
Answer: A, C
Question: 13
Refer to the screen capture below:
Based upon Endpoint information shown here, which collectors were used to profile the device as Apple iPad? (Choose 2)
A. OnGuard Agent
B. HTTP User-Agent
C. DHCP fingerprinting
D. SNMP
E. SmartDevice
Answer: B, C
Question: 14
To setup an Aruba Controller as DHCP relay for device fingerprinting, which of the following IP addresses needs to be configured?
A. DHCP server IP
B. ClearPass server IP
C. Active Directory IP
D. Microsoft NPS server IP
E. Switch IP
Answer: B
Question: 15
What database in the Policy Manager contains the device attributes derived by profiling?
A. Local Users Repository
B. Onboard Devices Repository
C. Endpoints Repository
D. Guest User Repository
E. Client Repository
Answer: C
HPE2-T30 Exam Dumps
Question: 1
Which string value attribute provides information to the REST client about a resource revision?
A. client cache
B. URI
C. eTag
D. request header
Answer: B
Question: 2
While you are attempting to perform HPE OneView operational tasks, an HTTP error status of 4xx displays.
What does this error status indicate?
A. A resource problem occurred.
B. An incorrect client action was performed
C. An incorrect programming function was called.
D. A server problem occurred.
Answer: A
Question: 3
HOTSPOT
Point and click on the area of the graphic that identifies the area that the Microsoft System center uses to communicate with HPE One View.
Answer: Insight Plug-in
Question: 4
HOTSPOT
Point and click on the area of the graphic that identifies the architectural layer that a storage administrator uses to communicate with the HPE OneView architecture.
Answer: Converged User Interface and REST API/SCMB
Question: 5
You are attempting to add a supported DL rack server to HPE OneView You have supplied the user credentials for the iLO.
Which object will HPE OneView use in its attempt to claim the rack server?
A. iLO Remote insight Board Command Language (RlBCL)
B. ipmanager binary large object (BLOB)
C. ISKU Identifier
D. VCMURL variable
Answer: A
Question: 6
Which part of HPE OneViews health monitor is responsible for translating incoming traps and sends notification messages to the Alert Service?
A. Events Service
B. SNMP Receiver
C. Status Aggregation Service
D. Alerts Service
Answer: B
PEGACSA72V1 Latest Certification Tests
Question: 1
A company establishes a deadline to respond to customer inquiries. During the month of June, an increase in customer inquiries lengthens the average response time per inquiry beyond the established deadline. To address the issue, the company decides to lengthen the deadline until the end of August.
How do you satisfy this requirement?
A. Circumstance the process using theProperty and Dateoption, and specify a start date and end date for the case creation date.
B. Circumstance the service level using theTemplateoption, and create a circumstance definition with the start date and end datefor the extended deadline.
C. Circumstance the property used to record the due date for addressing the inquiry, and specify a start date and end date for the extended deadline.
D. Circumstance the service level using theProperty and Dateoption, and specify a start date and end date for the extended deadline.
Answer: C
Question: 2
While preparing to release an application, you notice a guardrail violation on an activity you wrote. The activity copies the content of a previous customer order to the current order. How do you address the guardrail violation?
A. Justify the warning, since an activity is required in this situation.
B. Replace the activity with a data transform to copy the content of the previous order to the current order.
C. Identify an API activity to use in place of the activity you wrote.
D. Ignore the warning if the compliance score is 90 or greater, since the application is considered ready for release.
Answer: B
Question: 3
DRAG DROP
Match each development task to the appropriate role.
Answer:
Question: 4
In which situation does a case type for software upgrade requests reuse a rule through pattern inheritance?
A. The case type uses the approval section provided by Pega 7.
B. The case type uses an authorizationprocess used throughout the organization.
C. The case type uses the Data-Party-Operator class to describe a work party.
D. The case type uses a data type to describe the requestor.
Answer: B
Question: 5
Which issue is identified as a Guardrail violation?
A. A property in a report has not been optimized.
B. A decision table returns an invalid connector name to a flow.
C. An activity writes to the wrong clipboard page.
D. A decision tree contains a branch that cannot be reached.
Answer: A
Question: 6
On a service level, the passed deadline interval is measured from __________________________.
A. When a user begins the assignment.
B. When the assignment is ready for a user.
C. The end of the deadline interval.
D. The end of the goal interval.
Answer: C
Question: 7
During a playback, you place a flow in draft mode to address which limitation?
A. Toprevent additional shapes from being added to the flow.
B. To avoid errors due to references to rules that do not yet exists.
C. To save an incomplete flow.
D. To allow users to choose decision outcomes if a decision rule is not yet available.
Answer: B
Explanation:
eference:http://pegasystems2.http.internapcdn.net/pegasystems2/lrd_and_reference_docs/sae2_71ml6_StudentGuide_20141114.pdf(p.204)
Question: 8
You are developing a purchase application that integrates with an external inventory management system. A ____________ allows you to build the interface so that Pega can request information from the inventory management system.
A. Report Definition
B. data page
C. service
D. connector
Answer: D
Question: 9
DRAG DROP
Match each service record type to the correct role in processing an incoming request.
Answer:
200-355 Exam Practice Test
Question: 1
In the current RF environment, the noise floor is -95 dBm. A tablet needs an SNR of 25 dB to transmit at the required speed. What must the RSSI cell edge be to meet the required SNR?
A. -120 dBm
B. -90 dBm
C. -70 dBm
D. -60 dBm
E. -50 dBm
Answer: C
Question: 2
An access point is currently transmitting at 4 mW. The customer needs to increase its signal strength by 6 dB to create a larger wireless cell. What should the new transmit power be?
A. 8 mW
B. 10 mW
C. 12 mW
D. 16 mW
E. 24 mW
Answer: D
Question: 3
A wireless engineer is designing the wireless networking for a company with offices in two different locations. Which two regulatory bodies should they check to find the maximum EIRP allowed? (Choose two.)
A. IEEE
B. FCC
C. ITU-R
D. ETSI
E. Wi-Fi Alliance
Answer: B, D
Question: 4
After installing a Cisco 5508 Wireless Controller using the default settings, how often will the RRM update occur?
A. 30 seconds
B. 60 seconds
C. 300 seconds
D. 600 seconds
E. 3600 seconds
F. 7200 seconds
Answer: D
Question: 5
A customer has requested a single point of policy enforcement for LAN and WLAN. Which deployment model should be used?
A. converged
B. autonomous
C. FlexConnect
D. centralized
Answer: A
Question: 6
A customer has asked for the proper port configuration to allow for LAG on a Cisco 2504 Wireless Controller to a Cisco IOS switch. Which EtherChannel mode should be used on the switch to allow for the WLC to connect?
A. on
B. auto
C. desirable
D. passive
E. active
Answer: A
Question: 7
A customer has asked for its wireless equipment to be managed as securely as possible. Which three management protocols will provide encrypted access to the equipment? (Choose three.)
A. Secure Shell
B. HTTPS
C. SNMPv3
D. Telnet
E. SNMPv2c
F. HTTP
Answer: A, B, C
Question: 8
When deploying a Cisco Cloud Wireless Infrastructure, what two destination ports must be open? (Choose two.)
A. TCP/5246
B. UDP/5246
C. TCP/5247
D. UDP/5247
E. TCP/7351
F. UDP/7351
G. TCP/7734
H. UDP/7734
Answer: F, G
Question: 9
A help desk engineer is attempting to perform a remote packet capture on the wireless network. Which access point mode is necessary to perform this function?
A. sniffer
B. SE-Connect
C. monitor
D. rogue detector
E. FlexConnect
Answer: A
Question: 10
Refer to the exhibit. A help desk ticket has been entered for the wireless infrastructure. A wireless client is not able to connect at IEEE 802.11n rates. Which option allows for connectivity?
A. Set WMM mode to Optional or Required.
B. Set Quality of Service (QoS) to Silver.
C. Set Quality of Service (QoS) to Platinum.
D. Set 7920 AP CAC to Enabled.
Answer: A
Question: 11
An engineer has been asked to upgrade the FUS on the Wireless LAN controller. How can they monitor the status of the upgrade?
A. WLC GUI
B. WLC CLI
C. WLC Console
D. WLC Management in Prime Infrastructure
Answer: C
Question: 12
During a wireless site survey, the signal strength drops significantly when outside of the room containing the access point. The building is made of wood and drywall. This is an example of which wireless anomaly?
A. absorption
B. refraction
C. fading
D. multipath
E. reflection
Answer: A
Question: 13
A wireless engineer has been asked to plan a deployment covering the aisles of a warehouse with optimal coverage while bleeding RF across aisles. Which antenna type provides the necessary coverage?
A. patch
B. omnidirectional
C. Yagi
D. parabolic dish
Answer: A
Question: 14
Refer to the exhibit. The wireless engineer has deployed the Cisco 5508 Wireless Controller. The controller is responding on the service port; however, it will not respond on the management interface. Which configuration revision will fix the management interface?
A. On the switch interface, configure switch(config-if)#switchport trunk allowed vlan add 10.
B. On the WLC management interface, disable LAG on the management network.
C. On the switch interface, configure switch(config-if)#switchport trunk allowed vlan 10.
D. On the WLC management interface, change the VLAN ID to 20.
E. On the switch interface, configure no spanning-tree portfast trunk.
F. On WLC Controller > General, disable LAG and reboot.
Answer: A
Question: 15
A help desk ticket states that a wireless access point has not joined its controller and is flashing rapidly. How can the help desk administer the access point with the default settings?
A. console
B. SSH
C. Telnet
D. HTTP
E. HTTPS
Answer: A
Question: 16
After you configure the Cisco 5508 Wireless Controller v7.6, a customer requests an SSID that allows for client web authentication with email input. Which authentication method should be used?
A. pass-through
B. authentication
C. splash page web redirect
D. conditional web redirect
E. on MAC filter failure
Answer: A
Question: 17
Which two principles must be considered when deploying a wireless network through a wooded area? (Choose two.)
A. absorption
B. reflection
C. diffraction
D. scattering
E. refraction
Answer: A, D
Question: 18
What is an interferer that an engineer may see in Cisco CleanAir?
A. microwave ovens
B. rogue APs
C. malicious clients
D. co-channel interference
Answer: A
Question: 19
A network engineer notices that two mesh APs are having problems communicating. After reviewing the current radio configurations, it is noted that one AP is transmitting at 3 mW while the other is transmitting at 60 mW. How many decibels would the 3-mW AP need its power increased to match the 60-mW AP?
A. 8
B. 12
C. 13
D. 20
E. 57
Answer: C
Question: 20
A network engineer requires an antenna for a point-to-point bridge with at least 20 dBi of gain. Which antenna is appropriate for the task?
A. Yagi
B. patch
C. parabolic dish
D. dipole
E. internal omnidirectional
Answer: C
MB2-718 Study Guides
Question: 1
Your organization plans to use Voice of the Customer to send surveys to select groups of customers. You need to customize branding colors and logos for the surveys. What should you do?
A. Modify Voice of the Customer survey themes.
B. Configure system settings.
C. Modify Microsoft Dynamics 365 themes.
D. Update Voice of the Customer piped data.
Answer: D
Question: 2
Which three actions can you perform by using editable grids? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Update a lookup fie4d to a custom entity.
B. Edit records by using mobile clients.
C. Group records by a specific column.
D. Update a Customer Type lookup field.
E. Update the value of an Owner lookup field.
Answer: A,C,D
Question: 3
You plan to create surveys for a multinational company that manages hotels. You must create a unique survey for each hotel location. Which statement is true?
A. You can capture up to 10,000 survey responses per day.
B. You can store unlimited survey responses over time.
C. You can publish a maximum of 200 surveys.
D. All surveys must use the same theme.
Answer: A
Question: 4
You are creating a new survey with the Voice of the Customer Survey designer.
Which two statements regarding the Voice of the Customer Survey designer are true? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. The Complete page must always display last.
B. The Welcome page must always display first.
C. Surveys can have up to three pages.
D. Surveys can contain unlimited questions.
Answer: B,C
MB2-717 Exam Practice Software
Question: 1
You are a technical support specialist for your company.
The Company's sales staff are issued a company laptop to use when interfacing with Microsoft Dynamics 365. They need to integrate their smart phones with Microsoft Dynamics 365 as well. Many of their phones, however, do not have a supported web browser.
What should you suggest to meet this sales staffs need?
A. Advise them to run the Microsoft Dynamics 365 web app on their phones.
B. Advise them to use the web client to access Microsoft Dynamics 365 from their phones.
C. Advise them to download the Microsoft Dynamics 365 App from the Office 365 Admin portal.
D. Advise them to download the Microsoft Dynamics 365 App from their phone's store.
Answer: D
Question: 2
You are a sales manager for a large company that is about to implement Microsoft Dynamics 365.
A company called Fabrikam. Inc. has three divisions within the company that purchase services from your firm.
You have created an account record for each of the three divisions and for Fabrikam. Inc. and need to link the records.
How should you set up the records to properly link the record for Fabrikam, Inc. with its three divisions using Microsoft Dynamics 365 account management?
A. Fabrikam, Inc. is a Primary Contact
B. Fabrikam. Inc. is a Parent account.
C. Fabrikam. Inc. is a Parent Customer.
D. Fabrikam, Inc. is a Child account.
Answer: B
Question: 3
You have recently been hired as a sales assistant for a new employer.
The company sales staff uses Microsoft Dynamics 365, and you must occasionally input data for them.
You want to use the CRM Help Center for assistance to perform these tasks.
Which two help sources are available for you? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. phone support
B. training links
C. online chat
D. community blogs
Answer: B,C
Question: 4
You are The technical support specialist for a company that utilizes Microsoft Dynamics 365.
A new user calls the help desk complaining that every time they try to create a record, they are being denied the ability to The user states that some type of error is displayed as well.
What would cause this error?
A. The user cannot create records using the Outlook client
B. The user failed to populate at (east one required field.
C. The user is using Dynamics 365 Business Edition father than Enterprise Edition.
D. The user cannot input more than 250 characters into a single line of text field.
Answer: A
200-125 Free Demo Practice Test Software
Question: 1
Refer to the exhibit:
What will Router1 do when it receives the data frame shown? (Choose three.)
A. Router1 will strip off the source MAC address and replace it with the MAC address 0000.0c36.6965.
B. Router1 will strip off the source IP address and replace it with the IP address 192.168.40.1.
C. Router1 will strip off the destination MAC address and replace it with the MAC address 0000.0c07.4320.
D. Router1 will strip off the destination IP address and replace it with the IP address of 192.168.40.1.
E. Router1 will forward the data packet out interface FastEthernet0/1.
F. Router1 will forward the data packet out interface FastEthernet0/2.
Answer: A, C, F
Explanation:
Remember, the source and destination MAC changes as each router hop along with the TTL being decremented but the source and destination IP address remain the same from source to destination.
Question: 2
Refer to the exhibit.
Which three statements correctly describe Network Device A? (Choose three.)
A. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.128, each interface does not require an IP address.
B. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.128, each interface does require an IP address on a unique IP subnet.
C. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.0, must be a Layer 2 device for the PCs to communicate with each other.
D. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.0, must be a Layer 3 device for the PCs to communicate with each other.
E. With a network wide mask of 255.255.254.0, each interface does not require an IP address.
Answer: B, D, E
Explanation:
If Subnet Mask is 255.255.255.128 the hosts vary from x.x.x.0 - x.x.x.127 & x.x.x.128- x.x.x.255, so the IP Addresses of 2 hosts fall in different subnets so each interface needs an IP an address so that they can communicate each other.
If Subnet Mask is 255.255.255.0 the 2 specified hosts fall in different subnets so they need a Layer 3 device to communicate.
If Subnet Mask is 255.255.254.0 the 2 specified hosts are in same subnet so are in network address and can be accommodated in same Layer 2 domain and can communicate with each other directly using the Layer 2 address.
Question: 3
Which layer in the OSI reference model is responsible for determining the availability of the receiving program and checking to see if enough resources exist for that communication?
A. transport
B. network
C. presentation
D. session
E. application
Answer: E
Explanation:
This question is to examine the OSI reference model.
The Application layer is responsible for identifying and establishing the availability of the intended communication partner and determining whether sufficient resources for the intended communication exist.
Question: 4
Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three.)
A. A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.
B. A modem terminates a digital local loop.
C. A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop.
D. A modem terminates an analog local loop.
E. A router is commonly considered a DTE device.
F. A router is commonly considered a DCE device.
Answer: A, D, E
Explanation:
The idea behind a WAN is to be able to connect two DTE networks together through a DCE network. The network’s DCE device (includes CSU/DSU) provides clocking to the DTE-connected interface (the router’s serial interface).
A modem modulates outgoing digital signals from a computer or other digital device to analog signals for a conventional copper twisted pair telephone line and demodulates the incoming analog signal and converts it to a digital signal for the digital device. A CSU/DSU is used between two digital lines -
For more explanation of answer D, in telephony the local loop (also referred to as a subscriber line) is the physical link or circuit that connects from the demarcation point of the customer premises to the edge of the carrier or telecommunications service provider’s network. Therefore a modem terminates an analog local loop is correct.
Question: 5
Refer to the exhibit.
Host A pings interface S0/0 on router 3. What is the TTL value for that ping?
A. 252
B. 253
C. 254
D. 255
Answer: B
Explanation:
From the CCNA ICND2 Exam book: “Routers decrement the TTL by 1 every time they forward a packet; if a router decrements the TTL to 0, it throws away the packet. This prevents packets from rotating forever.” I want to make it clear that before the router forwards a packet, the TTL is still remain the same. For example in the topology above, pings to S0/1 and S0/0 of Router 2 have the same TTL.
The picture below shows TTL values for each interface of each router and for Host B. Notice that Host A initializes ICMP packet with a TTL of 255:
Question: 6
A network administrator is verifying the configuration of a newly installed host by establishing an FTP connection to a remote server. What is the highest layer of the protocol stack that the network administrator is using for this operation?
A. application
B. presentation
C. session
D. transport
E. internet
F. data link
Answer: A
Explanation:
FTP belongs to Application layer and it is also the highest layer of the OSI model.
Question: 7
Refer to the exhibit.
After HostA pings HostB, which entry will be in the ARP cache of HostA to support this transmission?
A. Exhibit A
B. Exhibit B
C. Exhibit C
D. Exhibit D
E. Exhibit E
F. Exhibit F
Answer: A
Explanation:
Host A knows host B is in another network so it will send the pings to its default gateway 192.168.6.1. Host A sends a broadcast frame asking the MAC address of 192.168.6.1. This information (IP and MAC address of the default gateway) is saved in its ARP cache for later use.
Question: 8
A network interface port has collision detection and carrier sensing enabled on a shared twisted pair network. From this statement, what is known about the network interface port?
A. This is a 10 Mb/s switch port.
B. This is a 100 Mb/s switch port.
C. This is an Ethernet port operating at half duplex.
D. This is an Ethernet port operating at full duplex.
E. This is a port on a network interface card in a PC.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Modern Ethernet networks built with switches and full-duplex connections no longer utilize CSMA/CD. CSMA/CD is only used in obsolete shared media Ethernet (which uses repeater or hub).
Question: 9
A receiving host computes the checksum on a frame and determines that the frame is damaged. The frame is then discarded. At which OSI layer did this happen?
A. session
B. transport
C. network
D. data link
E. physical
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Data Link layer provides the physical transmission of the data and handles error notification, network topology, and flow control. The Data Link layer formats the message into pieces, each called a data frame, and adds a customized header containing the hardware destination and source address. Protocols Data Unit (PDU) on Datalink layer is called frame. According to this question the frame is damaged and discarded which will happen at the Data Link layer.
Question: 10
Which of the following correctly describe steps in the OSI data encapsulation process? (Choose two.)
A. The transport layer divides a data stream into segments and may add reliability and flow control information.
B. The data link layer adds physical source and destination addresses and an FCS to the segment.
C. Packets are created when the network layer encapsulates a frame with source and destination host addresses and protocol-related control information.
D. Packets are created when the network layer adds Layer 3 addresses and control information to a segment.
E. The presentation layer translates bits into voltages for transmission across the physical link.
Answer: A, D
Explanation:
The transport layer segments data into smaller pieces for transport. Each segment is assigned a sequence number, so that the receiving device can reassemble the data on arrival.
The transport layer also use flow control to maximize the transfer rate while minimizing the requirements to retransmit. For example, in TCP, basic flow control is implemented by acknowledgment by the receiver of the receipt of data; the sender waits for this acknowledgment before sending the next part.
The Network layer (Layer 3) has two key responsibilities. First, this layer controls the logical addressing of devices. Second, the network layer determines the best path to a particular destination network, and routes the data appropriately.
HPE2-E67 Certifications Book
Question: 1
Which new IT consumption model is a pay-as-you-deploy model that allows customers to more efficiently adapt to business changes, and to take a more flexible, scalable approach to capacity planning?
A. HPE Pre-Provisioning
B. HPE Flexible Asset Return for Servers
C. HPE Subscription for Servers
D. HPE Accelerated Migration
Answer: A
Question: 2
Which kind of infrastructure allows for everything to be software defined and supports on-demand deployment of virtualized and physical workloads?
A. composable infrastructure
B. converged infrastructure
C. managed cloud infrastructure
D. hyper converged infrastructure
Answer: A
Question: 3
If you go into the first meeting with a customer and immediately start talking about products and solutions, how have you positioned yourself in the eyes of the customer?
A. as a commodity sales person, selling on price rather than value.
B. as a business partner with the customer's needs as the first priority.
C. as a knowledgeable sales consultant.
D. as a prepared sales consultant, ready to meet the challenges of the business.
Answer: A
Question: 4
At which point in the sales process should you start seriously discussing services as part of the solution?
A. if financing is involved, after financing approval is finalized
B. early in the sales cycle
C. after evaluating the customer's technical capabilities
D. once a hardware solution is identified
Answer: D
Question: 5
According to IDC. which statement regarding cloud spending is true?
A. cloud spending will be approximately 50% of IT budgets by 2019.
B. cloud spending among major companies will drop below 10% by 2019.
C. cloud spending is winding down and will flat line by 2019.
D. cloud spending by mid-sized companies will exceed 80% by 2019.
Answer: A
DSDPS-200 Certification
Question: 1
A Group Manager sees only one connection for a volume connected to a 2012 host that runs two iSCSI NICs.
What are three possible causes of this problem? (Choose three.)
A. The second iSCSI NIC doesNOThave flow control enabled.
B. The second iSCSI NIC doesNOThave Jumbo Frames enabled.
C. Multi-pathing was NOT applied on the initial connection.
D. Access control is set up for a single IP.
E. The second NIC does NOT have cable connected.
Answer: B, C, D
Question: 2
An engineer is creating snapshot schedules for a volume to protect against data corruption. Snapshots must be taken both hourly and nightly. Each schedule is configured for a max keep of 10. Snapshot borrowing is enabled. The default snapshot schedule has NOT been disabled.
What should be the expected max number of snapshots for this volume?
A. 20
B. 21
C. 10
D. 2
Answer: A
Explanation:
Maximumnumber of snapshots created by the schedule to keep. The default is 10 snapshots. The maximum is 512. Once the number of file system snapshots created by the schedule reaches the max-keep limit, the NAS service deletes the oldest snapshot before creating anew snapshot.
Note: Snapshot space borrowing allows you to temporarily increase the available snapshot space for a volume by borrowing from the snapshot reserve of other volumes and from pool free space. This enables you to prevent the oldest snapshots in your collection from being automatically deleted.
References:http://psonlinehelp.equallogic.com/en/V6.0/Content/bomre/Snapshot_Space_Borrowing/Concept/about_snap_spce_borrowing_placeholder.htm
Question: 3
An engineer needs to migrate a volume from a live production pool to a newly created pool, but is unable to do so.
What must the engineer do before the migration can start?
A. Offline the volume before migrating.
B. Disconnect active iSCSI sessions to the volume
C. Disable encryption on the group
D. Add or move a member to the new pool.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Note: You can move a volume to a different storagepool only if the new pool has free space equal to the size of the volume and any snapshot reserve and local replication reserve for the volume. If the pool does not have enough space, the volume will not move.
Question: 4
A customer reports that a problematic array is acting up. The customer is able to open SAN HQ and provide a SAN HQ archive, but is unable to get to the Group manager GUI to initiate a diag log pull. The customer tries to use the Group IP address via FTP to retrieve previous diagnostic files, but that is also unsuccessful.
What other option should the customer use to retrieve logs?
A. SNMP transfer
B. Email delivery
C. Dump to console
D. Use HTTPS option
Answer: B
Explanation:
After gathering the log information, the EqualLogic Array will attempt to send them via E-Mail if you have this configured, you also have the option of outputting to a text file.
References:http://www.interweb.org.uk/2012/02/03/equallogic-ps-series-array-gathering-diagnostic-logs-using-cli/
Question: 5
Which four PC arrays support Vertical Port Failover? (Choose four.)
A. 6510
B. 5500
C. 6610
D. 6100
E. 4210
F. 6210
Answer: C, D, E, F
Explanation:
References: DellPS Series Configuration Guide, Dell Storage Engineering
Question: 6
A new storage administrator (SA) is configuring replication on a newly created 1 TB volume. Management determines that asynchronous replication will be used.
The SA looks at the delegated space on the DR group and determines that there is NOT enough room to fit the replica set for the new volume.
Which action should the SA take at the DR site so that the new volume can be replicated?
A. Increase the delegated space.
B. Reduce the replica reserve on replicated volumes.
C. Reduce the volume by thin provisioning.
D. Increase the replica reserve on the new volume.
Answer: D
Explanation:
When the primary group administrator configures a volume for replication, the administrator assigns a portion of delegated space to the volume. This space, called replica reserve, limits the number of replicas thatyou can keep on the secondary group. You can modify the volume replication configuration and increase or decrease the replica reserve value, as needed.
References:http://psonlinehelp.equallogic.com/V5.0/Content/V5TOC/About_delegated_space_and_replic.htm
C9550-512 Free PDF Demo
Question: 1
What common standard is used by both the internal IBM Business Process Manager document store and external Enterprise Content Management servers?
A. Databases
B. Folder structure
C. Application server
D. CMIS-based interfaces
Answer: D
https://www.ibm.com/developerworks/community/files/basic/anonymous/api/library/cfa136f0-30c1-4177-9901-62c05d900c5f/document/759d7370-2260-47c3-9f66-17a706030d2c/media
Question: 2
Which status is available by default for Process Application snapshots?
A. QA
B. Old
C. New
D. Test
Answer: D
Question: 3
Which gateway is required to complete the BPD in the image below and ensure that the process either returns back to Task 1.1 or completes via Task 3?
A. Event Gateway
B. Complex Gateway
C. Parallel Gateway
D. Exclusive Gateway
Answer: D
http://www.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/SSFTDH_8.5.6/com.ibm.wbpm.wle.editor.doc/topics/example_gateways.html
Question: 4
When creating a Localization Resource bundle, which option can be changed only using the desktop Process Designer client application?
A. Importing localization bundles
B. Adding keys to a localization bundle
C. Adding values for the different languages
D. Adding locales to the localization resource
Answer: D
http://www.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/SSFTDH_8.5.7/com.ibm.wbpm.wle.editor.doc/topics/create_localiz_res.html
Question: 5
A BPM developer would make which recommendation to improve application performance?
A. Avoid purging data regularly.
B. Create deploy deeply nested Coach Views.
C. Create large server side JavaScript blocks.
D. Avoid multiple sequential system lane activities.
Answer: D
Question: 6
The image below shows case instance A which depends on BPD instance B and case instance C.
Which statement is true?
A. To terminate C, complete A.
B. C cannot complete until A is complete or terminated.
C. If A is terminated forcefully, then C is also terminated.
D. To terminate A, you must be authorized to terminate at least one of its instances.
Answer: B
HPE0-S46 Training kit
Question: 1
An architect has designed an HPE BladeSystem with Flex-10D Virtual Connect that connects to HPE 5830 switches The architect needs to ensure that the solution simplifies the customers campus Ethernet.
Which additional HPE technology should the architect recommend to the customer?
A. Intelligent Resilient Framework (IRF)
B. Shortest Path Bridge Mac in Mac (SPBM)
C. Fiber Channel over Ethernet(FCoE)
D. RDMA over Converged Ethernet (RoCE)
Answer: C
Question: 2
A customer needs to deploy SAP HANA The customer needs a scale-out solution to accommodate an increase m workload over the next two years
Which ProLiant series should the architect recommend to the customer?
A. HPE ProLiant 300
B. HPE ProLiant 100
C. HPE ProLiant BladeSystem
D. HPE ProLiant 500
Answer: D
Question: 3
An administrator is planning a Synergy 12000 frame deployment The administrator needs to configure the compute node types in the frame
In the graphic of the Synergy Planning Tool, click the option that the administrator needs to use to configure the compute nodes.
Which tool should an architect use to research the technical spec locations of various Smart Array controllers'?
A. HPE Product Bulletin
B. SalesBuilder for Windows
C. Proposal Web
D. HPEiQuote
Answer: D
Question: 4
A customer needs to improve the performance of a CPU intensive application running on an HPE ProLaint DL 360 Gen9 server with an Intel Xeon E5 processors The architect proposes to add an Intel Phi coprocessor extensions to me server.
What should an architect verify to ensure the coprocessor will improve application performance?
- that the application is able to work in a clustered environment
B. that the application is highly parallel and can scale to more than one hundred threads
C. that the server connected with a 40Gb/s network interface card
- that the server has a minimum of 24GB ECC-capable RAM installed
Answer: C
Question: 5
How does the HPE BladeSystem architecture meet the changing needs of data center customers?
A. introduction of Active Health System monitor
B. system management using HPE Virtual Connect modules
C. enables customers to shift investment from maintenance to innovation
D. consolidated deployment of firmware via HPE Agentless Management
Answer: A
Question: 6
A customer has a ProLiant DL based server solution The customer is experiencing high write latency with its virtual desktop infrastructure running on this solution
Which solution will increase the application performance and reduce the use of resources?
A. Upgrade the current processor to the E5-4800 v5 processor
B. Add a PCle workload Accelerator
C. Migrate to PCle Solid State Drives
D. Upgrade memory to 2133 MHz DDR4
Answer: D
ACE-A1.2 Study Guides
Question: 1
On EOS 4.13.1F, which of the following statements are true in regards to Arista’s Tap Aggregation feature?
A. Tap ports are send only.
B. Tap ports are receive only.
C. Tool ports are send only.
D. Tool ports are receive only.
Answer: D
Question: 2
Where does Aboot look for the boot system image at boot time?
A. At the location specified in the running-config
B. At the location specifiedin the startup-config
C. At the location specified in a file named boot-config on flash:
D. At the location specified in a file named boot_config on flash:
Answer: C
Question: 3
When ZTP is in enable node, what triggers ZTP when the switch boots?
A. A missing or zero-byte SWI image.
B. A missing or zero-clue administrator.
C. A missing or zero-byte startup-config file
D. A missing or zero-byte running-config file
Answer: C
Question: 4
Which of the following are valid Event Manager triggers?
A. on-boot
B. on-schedule
C. on-startup-config
D. on-reload
Answer: A, C
Question: 5
Which of the following Arista switch series’ supports Zero Touch Provisioning (ZTP)?
A. 7050
B. 7280E
C. 7300
D. 7500E
Answer: D
Question: 6
Which command would you use to change the SSH Idle timeout after entering the ‘management ssh’ command?
A. idle-timeout <minutes>
B. timed <minutes>
C. timeout <minutes>
D. ssh-idle <minutes>
Answer: A
Question: 7
What would be the result of issuing a reload command on one of the two switches peered together in an MLAG domain where both switches are running EOS version 4.14.1F?
A. Dual-homed hosts lose 50% of network capacity through the MLAG domain while the switch reboots
B. The peer switch also reboots to ensure network stability.
C. The peer switch sends out gratuitous BPDUs to let the network know that it has assumed the root-bridge role.
D. Nothing bad ever happens when MLAG is enabled!
Answer: A
Question: 8
On an Arista switch, which port is used to connect a laptop to the switch for initial configuration or password recovery?
A. Ethernet 1
B. Console
C. Management 1
D. Ethernet 1/1
Answer: A
Question: 9
How many Arista switches may be a part of a single MLAG domain?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16
Answer: A
Question: 10
Which of the following are not valid boot-config file entries?
A. NETGW=192.168.1.1
B. IMAGE-flash:EOS-4.12.1.swi
C. SWI=flash:EOS-4.12.1.swi
D. SWIX=flash:EOS-4.12.1.swi
Answer: B
352-001 Certification Score
Question: 1
A company plans to include Nonstop Forwarding and Bidirectional Forwarding Detection as a part of their network redundancy plan. In which two ways do NSF and BFD work together when different hardware platforms are compared? (Choose two.)
A. During supervisor engine or routing engine failover, the NSF feature will always ensure that the BFD at the peer router will not trigger a link down independent of the used hardware platform.
B. At some hardware platforms, BFD and NSF are not supported together. During supervisor engine or routing engine failover, the BFD at the peer router will trigger a link down.
C. To ensure that BFD at the peer router will not trigger a link down during NSF, the BFD packets must be processed fast enough, and, during supervisor engine or routing engine failover, by processing the BFD independent from the supervisor engine or routing engine.
D. Because BFD is always processed at the line cards (not at the supervisor engine or routing engine), a supervisor engine or routing engine failover will not affect the BFD peer router.
E. Because BFD is always processed at the supervisor engine or routing engine, a supervisor engine or routing engine failover will always trigger a link down at the peer router.
Answer: B, C
Question: 2
Refer to the exhibit.
A service provider would like to use Ethernet OAM to detect end-to-end connectivity failures between SP-SW1 and SP-SW2. In which two of these ways can you design this solution? (Choose two.)
A. Enable Y.1731 Connectivity Fault Management on the SP switches.
B. E-LMI PDUs must be forwarded over VPLS.
C. Cisco Discovery Protocol PDUs must be forwarded over the VPLS.
D. Use upward maintenance endpoints on the SP switches.
E. Enable IEEE 802.1ag Connectivity Fault Management on the SP switches.
Answer: D, E
Question: 3
A network design shows two routers directly connected to an Ethernet switch using optical connections. There is an OSPF adjacency between the routers. In this design, which solution will ensure that interface down detection is reported as quickly as possible to the IGP?
A. optimized OSPF SPF timers
B. Bidirectional Forwarding Detection
C. automatic protection switching
D. optimized OSPF LSA timers
E. Ethernet OAM CFM monitoring
Answer: B
Question: 4
A network designer is working with a company to improve convergence at the Layer 2 control plane and decides to use LACP. Which of these components does LACP use to create the system ID?
A. LACP system priority and switch MAC address
B. LACP port priority and switch MAC address
C. LACP port priority and port number
D. LACP system priority and port number
Answer: A
Question: 5
Refer to the exhibit.
You are designing a spanning-tree network for a small campus. Which two of these options would result in a trouble-free spanning-tree network design? (Choose two.)
A. Convert all ports to trunk ports, prune off the VLANs that you do not require, and minimize the number of blocking ports.
B. Introduce Layer 3 VLANs (SVIs) and prune off the VLANs that you do not require.
C. Convert all the ports to trunk and enable BackboneFast.
D. Convert all the ports to trunk and enable UplinkFast between all the links.
Answer: A, B
Question: 6
A network designer is redesigning an enterprise campus network to ensure that Ethernet switches proactively attempt to reconnect after a fiber cut. In the design, they will have to address areas where fiber cuts exist on campus from past troubleshooting, where a single fiber is disconnected in the fiber pair, leading to looping. Which feature could be implemented in the design to allow the Spanning Tree Protocol on the switches to be protected?
A. loop guard
B. UniDirectional Link Detection
C. UniDirectional Link Detection aggressive mode
D. root guard
Answer: C
Question: 7
A switched network is being designed to support a manufacturing factory. Due to cost constraints, fiber-based connectivity is not an option. Which design allows for a stable network when there is a risk of interference from the manufacturing hardware in use on the factory floor?
A. Design the network to include UDLD to detect unidirectional links and take them out of service.
B. Design the network to include EtherChannel bundles to prevent a single-link failure from taking down a switch interconnection point.
C. Design the network to include loop guard to prevent a loop in the switched network when a link has too much interference.
D. Design the network to include BackboneFast on all devices to accelerate failure convergence times.
Answer: A
Question: 8
Refer to the exhibit.
If IEEE 802.1w is in use for this network design, what are two locations where spanning-tree root can be placed to ensure the least-disruptive Layer 2 failover for clients within VLANs 3 and 4? (Choose two.)
A. Switch A
B. Switch B
C. Switch C
D. Switch D
Answer: C, D
Question: 9
A service provider has a Resilient Ethernet Protocol ring running as a metro backbone between its locations in one city. A customer wants to connect one site with one box redundant to the Resilient Ethernet Protocol ring at two different service provider locations. How can this be done without producing any Layer 2 loops within the network design?
A. Spanning tree at the service provider side only must be enabled.
B. Spanning tree at the customer side only must be enabled.
C. Flex Links at the service provider side only must be enabled.
D. Flex Links at the customer side only must be enabled.
E. EtherChannel at the service provider side and the customer side must be enabled.
F. Spanning tree at the service provider side and the customer side must be enabled.
G. Flex Links at the service provider side and the customer side must be enabled.
Answer: D
Question: 10
Refer to the exhibit.
Your company designed a network to allow server VLANs in a data center to span all access switches. In the design, Layer 3 VLAN interfaces and HSRP are configured on the aggregation switches. In which three ways should the design of the STP domain be optimized for server and application performance? (Choose three.)
A. Use loop guard on access ports.
B. Use PortFast on access ports.
C. Use root guard on access ports.
D. Align Layer 2 and Layer 3 forwarding paths.
E. Use BPDU Skew Detection on access ports.
F. Explicitly determine root and backup root bridges.
Answer: B, D, F
Question: 11
You have created a network design that has two point-to-point Metro Ethernet circuits extending a single production VLAN between two data centers. Under normal circumstances, one circuit will carry traffic and spanning tree will block the other. If the company wants you to make use of both circuits to carry production traffic, which two technologies and features will you investigate to integrate into your network design? (Choose two.)
A. EtherChannel
B. MST
C. Multichassis EtherChannel
D. PVST+
Answer: A, C
Question: 12
Voice traffic between two campus enterprise networks is growing. The network designers decide to add a second 10-Mb Metro Ethernet service parallel to their original 10-Mb service in order to provide more bandwidth and diversity. The QoS profile will be the same on the new 10-Mb service due to the voice stability on the first Metro Ethernet link. When the second link is added to the OSPF domain, which traffic design consideration would have the most impact on the voice traffic when both links are active?
A. per-destination IP address basis
B. per-flow basis
C. per-packet basis
D. per-source IP address basis
Answer: C
Question: 13
You work as a network designer for a company that is replacing their Frame Relay WAN with an MPLS VPN service, where the PE-to-CE routing protocol is BGP. The company has 3000 routes in their distribution routers, and they would like to advertise their access routers through the MPLS network. Their service provider, however, only supports 1000 prefixes per VRF. Which two design solutions can be applied to ensure that your access routers will be able to reach all devices in your network? (Choose two.)
A. Use prefix lists on your distribution routers to control which routes are sent to the MPLS network.
B. On your distribution routers, configure null routes and aggregate routes for the prefixes in your network.
C. Configure your distribution routers to send a default route to the MPLS network.
D. Summarize the routes on the MPLS WAN interfaces of your distribution routers.
Answer: B, C
Question: 14
You are designing a network that will run EIGRP over a Metro Ethernet service that does not employ a link-loss technology. What will be the impact on convergence if there is a break in the end-to-end Layer 2 connectivity within the service provider network?
A. The routers will immediately lose their adjacencies and converge.
B. The routing protocol will not converge until the hold timers have expired.
C. The switch ports connected to the router will go down and the routers will immediately converge.
D. The VLAN on the switches will go inactive, the ports associated on the switch will go down, and the routers will immediately converge.
Answer: B
Question: 15
Refer to the exhibit.
Acme Corporation hired you as a network designer to upgrade their network so that it supports IPv4 and IPv6 multicast. Which two protocols are needed on the LAN switch? (Choose two.)
A. PIM sparse mode
B. IGMP snooping
C. PIM snooping
D. Source Specific Multicast
E. MLD snooping
Answer: B, E
200-710 Latest Certification Tests
Question: 1
What is the difference between the spaceship operator (<=>) and the strcmp() function?
A. There is no difference in functionality
B. strcmp() returns a Boolean value, the spaceship operator a number
C. strcmp() does a case-intensive comparison, the spaceship operator does not
D. The spaceship operator returns -1, 0 or 1; strcmp() may return any integer
Answer: D
Question: 2
Which of these error types may be handled by a user defined error handler function? (Choose two.)
A. E_ERROR
B. E_NOTICE
C. E_PARSE
D. E_WARNING
Answer: A, C
Question: 3
CORRECT TEXT
What is the output of the following code?
Answer: 1
Question: 4
What is the output of the following code?
A. string(0) “”
B. bool(false)
C. string(1) “!”
D. string(2) “k!”
Answer: C
Question: 5
Consider 3 PHP files that are called asynchronously via XmlHttpRequest:
Which of the following statements is true? (Choose two.)
A. The total execution time for all 3 requests will be the maximum of the longest sleep() call
B. The requests may be processed out of order
C. The requests are guaranteed to be executed in order
D. Concurrent requests will be blocked until the session lock is released
Answer: A
Question: 6
What is the output of the following code?
A. 1
B. 2
C. null
Answer: A
Question: 7
What is the benefit of using persistent database connections in PHP? (Choose two.)
A. Reduces the connection & authentication overhead of connecting to the database
B. Ensures that only a single connection is open to the database from PHP
C. Allows connection settings such as character set encoding to persist
D. Allows for resumption of transactions across multiple requests.
Answer: C, D
Question: 8
What is the output of the following code?
A. MyNamespace\Test
B. empty string
C. parse error
D. Test
Answer: B
Question: 9
What function is best suited for extracting data from a formatted string into an array?
A. fgetcsv
B. sscanf
C. sprintf
D. strtok
Answer: C
Question: 10
What exception type will catch the error raised by the expression 2 / 0?
A. LogicException
B. RangeException
C. DivisionByZeroError
D. ArithmeticError
Answer: C
Question: 11
CORRECT TEXT
Which value will be assigned to the key 0 in the following code?
Answer: 1
Question: 12
What is the output of the following code?
echo '1' . (print '2') + 3;
A. 123
B. 213
C. 142
D. 214
E: Syntax error
Answer: D
Question: 13
What is the output of the following code?
$a = 3;
switch ($a) {
case 1: echo 'one'; break;
case 2: echo 'two'; break;
default: echo 'four'; break;
case 3: echo 'three'; break;
}
A. one
B. two
C. three
D. four
Answer: C
Question: 14
What is "instanceof" an example of?
A. a boolean
B. an operator
C. a function
D. a language construct
E: a class magic
Answer: B
Question: 15
Which of the following may be used in conjunction with CASE inside a SWITCH statement?
A. A scalar
B. An expression
C. A boolean
D. All of the above
Answer: D
Question: 16
What is the output of the following code?
$a = 'a'; $b = 'b';
echo isset($c) ? $a.$b.$c : ($c = 'c').'d';
A. abc
B. cd
C. 0d
Answer: B
1Z0-479 Free PDF Demo
Question: 1
Identify four data stores or repositories used by Oracle Identity Federation (OIF) 11g. (Choose four.)
A. Federation data store
B. User data store
C. Audit data store
D. Session and Message data store
E. Reportsdata store
F. Configuration data store
G. Role data store
Answer: A, B, D, F
Explanation:
https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E21764_01/install.1111/e12002/federation.htm#INOIM1112
Question: 2
Which authentication scheme is the preferred option for integrating OAM with OAAM in 11gR2?
A. OAAMBasic authentication scheme
B. TAPScheme authentication scheme
C. OAAMAdvanced authentication scheme
D. LDAPScheme authentication scheme
Answer: C
Explanation:
https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E23943_01/doc.1111/e15740/aam.htm#AIING263
Question: 3
Which protocol does WebGate use to communicate with the Access Manager server? (choose the best answer.)
A. TCP
B. HTTP
C. SSL
D. Oracle AccessProtocol (OAP)
E. Policy Administration Protocol (PAP)
Answer: C
Explanation:
http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E25178_01/doc.1111/e15478/keytool.htm
Question: 4
In Security Token Service, what is the prerequisite when managing a Token Issuance Template? (Choose the best answer.)
A. Confirm whether the desired LDAP Identity Store is registered with and configured as the Default Store.
B. A WebGatemust be registered with Oracle Identity Federation.
C. The WSS Validation Template must be configured to accept only X.509 certificates.
D. SAML tokens must be present in the SOAP header.
Answer: D
Explanation:
http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E25178_01/doc.1111/e15478/osts_compnt.htm#CDDDDADE(about servers and oracle security token service)
Question: 5
In an enterprise deployment, where are the binary and library files that are required for Oracle Access Management located? (Choose the best answer.)
A. IDM_ORACLE_HOME
B. IAM_ORACLE_HOME
C. ORACLE_COMMON_HOME
D. IAM_MW_HOME/iam
Answer: D
Explanation:
https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E40329_01/doc.1112/e48635/preprov.htm
Question: 6
How would you add support for additional Internet Identity Providers for Oracle Access Management Mobile and Social, other than the preconfigured ones such as Facebook and LinkedIn? (Choose the best answer.)
A. You do this by implementing theoracle.security.idaas.rp.spi.ServiceproviderJava interface.
B. Support for Internet Identity Providers is limited to the ones that are available out of the box from Oracle Access Management.
C. Support for Internet Identity Providers is enabled through the connectors built on the Identity Connector Framework (ICF).
D. You do this by implementing theoracle.security.idaas.rp.spi.IdentityProviderJava interface.
Answer: D
Explanation:
https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E37115_01/admin.1112/e27239/oicconfiginetidentitysrvcs.htm#AIAAG8280
Question: 7
Identify two protocols that the Oracle Access Management Social module supports for Authentication and Authorization using Internet Identity services. (Choose two.)
A. OpenID
B. WebID
C. BrowserID
D. Windows Live ID
E. OAuth
Answer: A, E
Explanation:
https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E37115_01/admin.1112/e27239/oicconfiginetidentitysrvcs.htm#AIAAG8280
Question: 8
Which two earlier technologies does Oracle Access Manager 11g replace and provide a converged platform for? (Choose two.)
A. Oracle Access Manager 10g
B. Oracle Identity Manager 10g
C. Oracle Application Server SSO (OSSO) 10g
D. Oracle WebCenter 10g
E. Oracle Enterprise Single Sing-On
Answer: A, C
Explanation:
https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E40329_01/admin.1112/e27239/omgtintro.htm#AIAAG1700
1Z0-327 Study Guides
Question: 1
Your customer is Implementing the full suite Cloud procurement. They would like to know how best they can utilize the Contract Terms library.
Identity three applications from where users can access the Contract Terms library for setting up “contract terms ” for different documents.
A. Supplier Model
B. Self Service Procurement
C. Sourcing
D. Purchasing
E. Procurement Contracts
Answer: AC
Question: 2
An organization implementing Supplier Qualification Management has multiple procurement business Units: PR BU1, PR BU2 , and PR BU3. The Corporate head office (CORP BU) is also defined as one of the procurement business units.
The organization wants to maintain and manage the Qualification area-A for use by all the procurement business units, but wants the Qualification area-B to be used only by CORP BU and PR BU1.
Identify two setups to fulfill this requirement.
A. Create the Qualification area-B in CORP BU and select PR BU1.
B. Create the Qualification area-A in CORP BU and select the “Blobal” check box.
C. Create the Qualification area-B U and select the “Global” check box.
D. Create the Qualification area-B in CORP BU and select the “Global” check box.
E. Create the Qualification area-A in PR BU2 and select PR BU BU3.
Answer: CE
Question: 3
Which three business users can submit a new supplier request?
A. Self-Service Procurement user
B. Warehouse Manager
C. Catalog Administrator
D. Supplier Administrator
E. Category Manger
Answer: BD
Question: 4
During Oracle Procurement Cloud Implementation, one of the requirements of the customer is to Capture the revision history of Purchase Orders when ‘notes to receiver’ is entered or updated as part of a Change Order. Identify the setup that needs to be performed in order to capture change history when a user updates ‘notes to receiver’ as part of the Change Order.
A. Update the attribute ‘notes to receiver’ in supplier site assignment for the supplier site.
B. Update the attribute ‘notes to receiver’ in Common Payables and Procurement Options' for the
procurement Business unit.
C. Update the attribute ‘notes to receiver’ in ‘Configure Requisitioning Business Function’ for the requisitioning Business Unit.
D. Update the attribute ‘notes to receiver’ in the Change Order template for the Purchase Order.
Answer: AC
Question: 5
Which option would (lie application first look at to default the Location Hold In the Purchase Order Line?
A. Purchase Order Header
B. supplier site assignment record of the supplier site In the Requisitioning BU
C. BU assignment record of the source agreement that corresponds to the Requisitioning BU
D. "Requisitioning Business Function Configuration" task of the Requisitioning BU
Answer: AB
Question: 6
Your customer tells you that in their industry, the response document for an auction is called a ‘Proposal’ Instead of the default Oracle term ‘Bid ’, and that they would like to have all their all their negotiation documents reflect this terminology. What would you do to meet this requirement?
A. Create a Negotiation Template.
B. Create a Purchasing Document Style.
C. Create a Negotiation Style.
D. Create a Negotiation Style.
E. Customize the Descriptive Flex field.
Answer: BC
Question: 7
Your customer wants to configure three' business units (IIUs) as follows:
• US East BU and US West BU that perform requisitioning related business processes and tasks.
• T he US East BU provides payment services for Its own invoices and for the US West BU's Invoices.
• One BU, US Header BU. that Is configured as a shared Procurement BU with only the Procurement function enabled
Identify the correct configuration.
A. The US East BU needs to be configured as a Payables Payment Service Provider.
B. The US East BU and US West BU need to be configured as Payables Payment Service Provider.
C. The US Header BU needs to be configured as a Payables Payment Service Provider.
D. The US West BU needs to be configured as a Customer Payments Service Provider.
Answer: A
Question: 8
During a Procurement Contract implementation, a customer would like? to set up their own line type for buying services. I hey Intend to use this line type tor negotiating terms for future purchase of services and do not have a defined scope of work.
Identify the source that the customer needs to select while creating the line type to moot this requirement.
A. Free form, buy
B. free form, buy agreement
C. Item, buy
D. Item, buy agreement
Answer: C
C_AFARIA_02 Test Certification
Question: 1
The Microsoft Certificate Authority server is required for use in provisioning iOS devices in for management in SAP Afaria. Determine whether this statement is true or false.
A. False
B. True
Answer: B
Question: 2
When a device is moved from one tenant to another, the policies do follow? Determinate whether this statement is true or false
A. False
B. True
Answer: A
Question: 4
When preparing to manage devices, certain conditions may need to be satisfied for a device to be able to communicate with Afaria to enroll, receive emails, or install applications.
Determine whether this statement is true or false.
A. False
B. True
Answer: B
Question: 5
Where is Installed the Relay Server?
Choose the correct answer.
A. Is Installed in an Server Farm
B. Is Installed in an Internal Network
C. Is Installed in an External Network
D. Is Installed in a Demilitarized Zone
Answer: D
Question: 6
Which of the following devices do NOT use custom defined clients. Choose the correct answers.
A. Windows Mobile
B. iOS
C. BlackBerry
D. Windows (PC)
E. Android
Answer: B, E
Question: 7
Which are Questions to Help Define an Alert?
Choose the corrects answers
A. Will the system forward a run executable file for alert?
B. Who are the handling raised alerts?
C. What events will trigger an alert?
D. Will system-defined events be used to trigger events or will events be defined?
Answer: C, D
Question: 8
Which are the Activity Summary Views of the Afaria Data?
Choose the correct answers
A. Calls
B. Location
C. Data
D. Messages
Answer: A, C, D
Question: 9
Identify which of the following is a Value is Specific to Tenant Configuration.
Choose the correct answers.
A. iOS Branding/Notification
B. Administrators
C. Certificate Authority
D. Access Control Option
Answer: A, C, D
Question: 10
Where is Installed the Relay Server?
Choose the correct answer.
A. Is Installed in an External Network
B. Installed in a Server Farm
C. Is Installed in a Demilitarized Zone
D. Is Installed in an Internal Network
Answer: C
Question: 11
Which are the Features Enabled by the Relay Server?
Choose the correct answers.
A. Secure communications for Web Traffic
B. Load balancing
C. Accepts a single, inbound connections for Afaria client devices
D. Failover protection
Answer: A, B, D
Question: 12
Which are the Supported Device Type for Enrollment?
Choose the correct answers
A. Symbian
B. Windows CE
C. Windows XP, Vista, 7
D. Windows NT
Answer: B, C
Question: 13
Which are the Key Points about Tenants?
Choose the correct answers
A. Is placed in is dependent on the enrollment policy that is used to enroll the device
B. Is prompted with an acceptance message
C. Some server configuration values can be tenant specific, other cannot
D. Ability to move devices from one tenant to another
Answer: C, D
Question: 14
Which are the Examine Error Logs?
Choose the correct answers
A. Replication Log
B. WinPhone Connection Log
C. The Most Common Log
D. iOS Connections Logs
Answer: C, D
Question: 15
Which are the Server Properties of the SAP Afaria Server?
Choose the correct answers
A. Replication Screen
B. Server Type Screen
C. Server Farm Screen
D. SMS Gateway Screen
Answer: C, D
Question: 16
Which are the apple components requiring for configure in SAP Afaria?
Choose the correct answers
A. Certificate Authority Server
B. Communication with Apple Push Notification Services
C. ADMZ
D. AAICA Certificate
Answer: A, B
Question: 17
To upgrade from SAP Afaria 6.6 to SAP Afaria 7.0 SP3. several conditions must be met.
Select the correct changes from the options.
A. Changes to the restrictions to the supported upgrade path
B. Changes to the profiles used in the Profile Manager channels
C. Changes to the upgrades on the Symbian device type
D. Changes to the supported databases for the back-nd SAP Database
Answer: A, C, D
Question: 18
Which of the following items are attributes of the Self Service Portal Configuration file?
Choose the correct answers.
A. Contains codes specified during installation
B. XML Structured
C. Users are not limited to codes in this file
D. Used with configuration of the GCM server
Answer: A, B, C
Question: 19
What port is used by SAP Afaria to connect with Google Cloud Messaging (GCM) to send outbound notifications to devices?
Choose the correct answer
A. 80
B. 5223
C. 5228
D. 443
Answer: D
Question: 20
Which of the following are valid SAP Afaria server device communication protocols?
Choose the correct answers.
A. soap
B. http
C. smtp
D. xnet
Answer: B, D
C2090-621 Practice Test Software
Question: 1
A report author has been asked to create a list report with multiple facts from across the business. The desired outcome must ensure correlated and predictable results.
Which item must be included in the list report?
A. Repeater table
B. Conditional fact
C. Model Query subject
D. Conformed dimension
Answer: C
Question: 2
A user is creating a join relationship in a Data module.
What benefit can be expected from setting a filter join?
A. Theperformance on the join could be improved.
B. The result set from the join would return less rows.
C. The result set from the join would return more rows.
D. The join relationship would work on multiple fields in each table.
Answer: A
Question: 3
A report author wants to add calculations that were created in the published package to a report.
Where can this be done?
A. Macro tab
B. Source tab
C. Functions tab
D. Parameter tab
Answer: D
Question: 4
A report author had created a single select value prompt using the prompt wizard. The end user now needs to select more than one value.
What should the report author do?
A. Set the Auto-submit property of the Prompt to ‘Yes’ and changethe Multi-select property of the value prompt to ‘Yes’.
B. Set the Auto-Submit property of the Prompt to ‘Yes’ and change the parameterized filter associated with the prompt to the ‘in’ operator.
C. Change the Multi-select property of the value prompt to‘Yes’ and change the parameterized filter associated with the prompt to the ‘>’ operator.
D. Change the Multi-select property of the value prompt to ‘Yes’ and change the parameterized filter associated with the prompt to the ‘in’ operator.
Answer: A
Question: 5
A report author wants to enhance a report by having the ability to display the data by region and filter by Order method (where Order method includes: Email, Fax, Post, Sales rep, Promo, Phone, Web site).
How can this be accomplished?
A. Select On-demand toolbar > Select checkbox group > Add default values
B. Select Button Bar control >Go to properties > Change User interface to checkbox
C. Create a parameterized filter from the order_method > Manually populate the parameterized
D. Select the Button Bar control > From the on-demand toolbar > Click the ellipsis > Point to convert control> Click check box group
Answer: A
Question: 6
A report author uploads files into Cognos Analytics – Reporting.
Which file formats are supported? (Choose two.)
A. Microsoft Excel formatted single sheet worksheets.
B. Any text or Microsoft Excel spreadsheet (xlsx or xls).
C. Text files with data separated by commas, colons, tabs or semi-colons.
D. Text files with data separated by commas, tabs, semi-colons or pipes.
E. Text files must be fixed length without any separator denoting columns.
Answer: A,C
7230X Preparation Material
Question: 1
Avaya currently uses the online tool called Avaya Diagnostic Methodology (ADM) for partners to raise trouble tickets and receive assistance, and expects customers/partners to have performed the following tasks before raising a trouble ticket.
1. Clearly stated the problem.
2. Detailed the findings.
3. Clarified the problem.
When they receive the trouble ticket, what is the next step in the diagnostic methodology that Avaya Tier 3 support will perform?
A. Identify a patch to fix the problem.
B. Update the Knowledge Management database.
C. Implement a solution.
D. Determine the cause.
Answer: D
Question: 2
Which statement about Avaya Tier 2/Business Partners is true?
A. They immediately escalate to Tier 3 as issue is encountered.
B. They describe the problem to Tier 3 in an escalation ticket and Tier 3 isolates and resolves the issue.
C. They isolate issue, resolve issue then escalate to Tier 3 for corrective action.
D. They isolate the issue, and if no root cause is found, escalate to Tier 3 to resolve the issue.
Answer: D
Question: 3
A Network Administrator of a company has been made aware of a problem with the telephone system, and contacts a few colleagues who have dealt with similar problems in the past.
Which Discipline in 8D Methodology describes the action of the Network Administrator?
A. D4
B. D3
C. D2
D. D1
Answer: A
Question: 4
Avaya Support personnel report a case, including root cause and resolution, in the Knowledge Base.
Which 8D Methodology discipline covers this action?
A. D8
B. D7
C. D6
D. D5
Answer: C
Question: 5
Under which condition is a Business Partner/Avaya Tier 2 not required to escalate to Avaya Tier 3?
A. when the customer issue is not service affecting
B. when the Business Partner/Avaya Tier 2 haveisolated issue and found a resolution
C. when the issue for the customer is intermittent
D. when the issue is a common one resolved through an upgrade
Answer: D
Question: 6
After completing Discipline 4, Determining Root Cause, of the 8D Troubleshooting Methodology, what is the next discipline to be completed?
A. Discipline 5 – Implement a Work-around
B. Discipline 5 – Implement Corrective Actions
C. Discipline 5 – Choose Corrective Actions
D. Discipline 5 – Prevent Recurrences
Answer: C
Question: 7
Who is responsible for Discipline 4, Determining Root Cause, of the 8D Troubleshooting Methodology?
A. Business Partners
B. Avaya Tier 2
C. Third Party Support
D. Avaya Tier 3
Answer: B
300-208 PDF Download
Question: 1
A network administrator needs to implement a service that enables granular control of IOS commands that can be executed. Which AAA authentication method should be selected?
A. TACACS+
B. RADIUS
C. Windows Active Directory
D. Generic LDAP
Answer: A
Question: 2
An administrator can leverage which attribute to assign privileges based on Microsoft Active Directory user groups?
A. member of
B. group
C. class
D. person
Answer: A
Question: 3
Cisco 802.1X phasing enables flexible deployments through the use of open, low-impact, and closed modes. What is a unique characteristic of the most secure mode?
A. Granular ACLs applied prior to authentication
B. Per user dACLs applied after successful authentication
C. Only EAPoL traffic allowed prior to authentication
D. Adjustable 802.1X timers to enable successful authentication
Answer: C
Question: 4
A network administrator must enable which protocol extension to utilize EAP-Chaining?
A. EAP-FAST
B. EAP-TLS
C. MSCHAPv2
D. PEAP
Answer: A
Question: 5
In the command 'aaa authentication default group tacacs local', how is the word 'default' defined?
A. Command set
B. Group name
C. Method list
D. Login type
Answer: C
Question: 6
Changes were made to the ISE server while troubleshooting, and now all wireless certificate authentications are failing. Logs indicate an EAP failure. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. EAP-TLS is not checked in the Allowed Protocols list
B. Certificate authentication profile is not configured in the Identity Store
C. MS-CHAPv2-is not checked in the Allowed Protocols list
D. Default rule denies all traffic
E. Client root certificate is not included in the Certificate Store
Answer: A
Question: 7
The NAC Agent uses which port and protocol to send discovery packets to an ISE Policy Service Node?
A. tcp/8905
B. udp/8905
C. http/80
D. https/443
Answer: B
Question: 8
Which two conditions are valid when configuring ISE for posturing? (Choose two.)
A. Dictionary
B. member Of
C. Profile status
D. File
E. Service
Answer: D,E
Question: 9
Refer to the exhibit.
Which three statements about the given configuration are true? (Choose three.)
A. TACACS+ authentication configuration is complete.
B. TACACS+ authentication configuration is incomplete.
C. TACACS+ server hosts are configured correctly.
D. TACACS+ server hosts are misconfigured.
E. The TACACS+ server key is encrypted.
F. The TACACS+ server key is unencrypted.
Answer: B,C,F
Question: 10
In AAA, what function does authentication perform?
A. It identifies the actions that the user can perform on the device.
B. It identifies the user who is trying to access a device.
C. It identifies the actions that a user has previously taken.
D. It identifies what the user can access.
Answer: B
Question: 11
Which identity store option allows you to modify the directory services that run on TCP/IP?
A. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol
B. RSA SecurID server
C. RADIUS
D. Active Directory
Answer: A
Question: 12
Which term describes a software application that seeks connectivity to the network via a network access device?
A. authenticator
B. server
C. supplicant
D. WLC
Answer: C
Question: 13
Cisco ISE distributed deployments support which three features? (Choose three.)
A. global implementation of the profiler service CoA
B. global implementation of the profiler service in Cisco ISE
C. configuration to send system logs to the appropriate profiler node
D. node-specific probe configuration
E. server-specific probe configuration
F. NetFlow probes
Answer: A,C,D
Question: 14
How frequently does the Profiled Endpoints dashlet refresh data?
A. every 30 seconds
B. every 60 seconds
C. every 2 minutes
D. every 5 minutes
Answer: B
Question: 15
Which command in the My Devices Portal can restore a previously lost device to the network?
A. Reset
B. Found
C. Reinstate
D. Request
Answer: C
Question: 16
What is the first step that occurs when provisioning a wired device in a BYOD scenario?
A. The smart hub detects that the physically connected endpoint requires configuration and must use MAB to authenticate.
B. The URL redirects to the Cisco ISE Guest Provisioning portal.
C. Cisco ISE authenticates the user and deploys the SPW package.
D. The device user attempts to access a network URL.
Answer: A
Question: 17
Which three features should be enabled as best practices for MAB? (Choose three.)
A. MD5
B. IP source guard
C. DHCP snooping
D. storm control
E. DAI
F. URPF
Answer: B,C,E
Question: 18
When MAB is configured, how often are ports reauthenticated by default?
A. every 60 seconds
B. every 90 seconds
C. every 120 seconds
D. never
Answer: D
Question: 19
What is a required step when you deploy dynamic VLAN and ACL assignments?
A. Configure the VLAN assignment.
B. Configure the ACL assignment.
C. Configure Cisco IOS Software 802.1X authenticator authorization.
D. Configure the Cisco IOS Software switch for ACL assignment.
Answer: C
Question: 20
Which model does Cisco support in a RADIUS change of authorization implementation?
A. push
B. pull
C. policy
D. security
Answer: A
70-762 Real Exam
Question: 1
DRAG DROP
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is exactly the same in each question in this series.
You have a database named Sales that contains the following database tables: Customer, Order, and Products. The Products table and the Order table are shown in the following diagram.
The customer table includes a column that stores the data for the last order that the customer placed.
You plan to create a table named Leads. The Leads table is expected to contain approximately 20,000 records. Storage requirements for the Leads table must be minimized.
Changes to the price of any product must be less a 25 percent increase from the current price. The shipping department must be notified about order and shipping details when an order is entered into the database.
You need to implement the appropriate table objects.
Which object should you use for each table? To answer, drag the appropriate objects to the correct tables. Each object may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Answer:
The Products table needs a primary key constraint on the ProductID field.
The Orders table needs a foreign key constraint on the productID field, with a reference to the ProductID field in the Products table.
Question: 2
HOTSPOT
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is exactly the same in each question in this series.
You have a database named Sales that contains the following database tables: Customer, Order, and Products. The Products table and the Order table are shown in the following diagram.
The customer table includes a column that stores the data for the last order that the customer placed.
You plan to create a table named Leads. The Leads table is expected to contain approximately 20,000 records. Storage requirements for the Leads table must be minimized.
You need to implement a stored procedure that deletes a discontinued product from the Products table. You identify the following requirements:
What should you do? To answer, select the appropriate Transact-SQL segments in the answer area.
Answer:
Using TRY...CATCH inTransact-SQL
Errors in Transact-SQL code can be processed by using a TRY…CATCH construct.
TRY…CATCH can use the following error function to capture error information:
ERROR_MESSAGE() returns the complete text of the error message. The text includes the values supplied for any substitutable parameters such as lengths, object names, or times.
References:https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms179296(v=sql.105).aspx
Question: 3
HOTSPOT
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is exactly the same in each question in this series.
You have a database named Sales that contains the following database tables: Customer, Order, and Products. The Products table and the Order table are shown in the following diagram.
The customer table includes a column that stores the data for the last order that the customer placed.
You plan to create a table named Leads. The Leads table is expected to contain approximately 20,000 records. Storage requirements for the Leads table must be minimized.
You need to create triggers that meet the following requirements:
In the table below, identify the trigger types that meet the requirements.
NOTE: Make only selection in each column. Each correct selection is worth one point.
Answer:
INSTEAD OF INSERT triggers can be defined on a view or table to replace the standard action of the INSERT statement.
AFTER specifies that the DML trigger is fired only when all operationsspecified in the triggering SQL statement have executed successfully.
References:https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms175089(v=sql.105).aspx
Question: 4
HOTSPOT
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is exactly the same in each question in this series.
You have a database named Sales that contains the following database tables: Customer, Order, and Products. The Products table and the Order table are shown in the following diagram.
The customer table includes a column that stores the data for the last order that the customer placed.
You plan to create a table named Leads. The Leads table is expected to contain approximately 20,000 records. Storage requirements for the Leads table must be minimized.
The Leads table must include the columns described in the following table.
The data types chosen must consume the least amount of storage possible.
You need to select the appropriate data types for the Leads table.
In the table below, identify the data type that must be used for each table column.
NOTE: Make only one selection in each column.
Answer:
Bit is aTransact-SQL integer data type that can take a value of 1, 0, or NULL.
Smallint is aTransact-SQL integer data type that can take a value in the range from -32,768 to 32,767.
int, bigint, smallint, and tinyint (Transact-SQL)
Exact-number data types that use integer data.
References:https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms187745.aspx
https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms177603.aspx
Question: 5
HOTSPOT
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is exactly the same in each question in this series.
You have a database named Sales that contains the following database tables: Customer, Order, and Products. The Products table and the Order table are shown in the following diagram.
The customer table includes a column that stores the data for the last order that the customer placed.
You plan to create a table named Leads. The Leads table is expected to contain approximately 20,000 records. Storage requirements for the Leads table must be minimized.
You need to modify the database design to meet the following requirements:
In the table below, identify the constraint that must be configured for each table.
NOTE: Make only one selection in each column.
Answer:
A FOREIGN KEY in one table points to a PRIMARY KEY in another table. Here the foreign key constraint is put on the ProductIDin the Orders, and points to the ProductID of the Products table.
With a check constraint on the ProductID we can ensure that the Products table contains only unique rows.
References:http://www.w3schools.com/sql/sql_foreignkey.asp
Question: 6
DRAG DROP
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is exactly the same in each question in the series.
You have a database named Sales that contains the following database tables. Customer, Order, and Products. The Products table and the order table shown in the following diagram.
The Customer table includes a column that stores the date for the last order that the customer placed.
You plan to create a table named Leads. The Leads table is expected to contain approximately 20,000 records. Storage requirements for the Leads table must be minimized.
You need to begin to modify the table design to adhere to third normal form.
Which column should you remove for each table? To answer? drag the appropriate column names to the correct locations. Each column name may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Answer:
In the Products table the SupplierName is dependant on the SupplierID, not on the ProductID.
In the Orders table the ProductName is dependant on the ProductID, not on the OrderID.
Note:
A table is in third normal form when the following conditions are met:
* It is in second normal form.
* All nonprimary fields are dependent on the primarykey.
Second normal form states that it should meet all the rules for First 1Normnal Form and there must be no partial dependences of any of the columns onthe primary key.
First normal form (1NF) sets the very basic rules for an organized database:
* Define the data items required, because they become the columns in a table. Place related data items in a table.
* Ensure that there are no repeating groups ofdata.
* Ensure that there is a primary key.
References:https://www.tutorialspoint.com/sql/third-normal-form.htm
Question: 7
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is exactly the same in each question in this series.
You have a database that contains the following tables: BlogCategory, BlogEntry, ProductReview, Product, and SalesPerson. The tables were created using the following Transact SQL statements:
You must modify the ProductReview Table to meet the following requirements:
1. The table must reference the ProductID column in the Product table
2. Existing records in the ProductReview table must not be validated with the Product table.
3. Deleting records in the Product table must not be allowed if records are referenced by the ProductReview table.
4. Changes to records in the Product table must propagate to the ProductReview table.
You also have the following database tables: Order, ProductTypes, and SalesHistory, The transact-SQL statements for these tables are not available.
You must modify the Orders table to meet the following requirements:
1. Create new rows in the table without granting INSERT permissions to the table.
2. Notify the sales person who places an order whether or not the order was completed.
You must add the following constraints to the SalesHistory table:
- a constraint on the SaleID column that allows the field to be used as a record identifier
- a constant that uses the ProductID column to reference the Product column of the ProductTypes table
- a constraint on the CategoryID column that allows one row with a null value in the column
- a constraint that limits the SalePrice column to values greater than four
Finance department users must be able to retrieve data from the SalesHistory table for sales persons where the value of the SalesYTD column is above a certain threshold.
You plan to create a memory-optimized table named SalesOrder. The table must meet the following requirements:
- The table must hold 10 million unique sales orders.
- The table must use checkpoints to minimize I/O operations and must not use transaction logging.
- Data loss is acceptable.
Performance for queries against the SalesOrder table that use Where clauses with exact equality operations must be optimized.
You need to enable referential integrity for the ProductReview table.
How should you complete the relevant Transact-SQL statement? To answer? select the appropriate Transact-SQL segments in the answer area.
Select two alternatives.
A. For the first selection select: WITH CHECK
B. For the first selection select: WITH NOCHECK
C. For the second selection select: ON DELETE NO ACTION ON UPDATE CASCADE
D. For the second selection select: ON DELETECASCADE ON UPDATE CASCADE
E. For the second selection select: ON DELETE NO ACTION ON UPDATE NO ACTION
F. For the second selection select: ON DELETE CASCADE ON UPDATE NO ACTION
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
B: We should use WITH NOCHECK as existing records inthe ProductReview table must not be validated with the Product table.
C: Deletes should not be allowed, so we use ON DELETE NO ACTION.
Updates should be allowed, so we use ON DELETE NO CASCADE
NO ACTION: the Database Engine raises an error, and the updateaction on the row in the parent table is rolled back.
CASCADE: corresponding rows are updated in the referencing table when that row is updated in the parent table.
Note: ON DELETE { NO ACTION | CASCADE | SET NULL | SET DEFAULT }
Specifieswhat action happens to rows in the table that is altered, if those rows have a referential relationship and the referenced row is deleted from the parent table. The default is NO ACTION.
ON UPDATE { NO ACTION | CASCADE | SET NULL | SET DEFAULT }
Specifieswhat action happens to rows in the table altered when those rows have a referential relationship and the referenced row is updated in the parent table. The default is NO ACTION.
Note: You must modify the ProductReview Table to meet the following requirements:
1. The table must reference the ProductID column in the Product table
2. Existing records in the ProductReview table must not be validated with the Product table.
3. Deleting records in the Product table must not be allowed if records are referencedby theProductReview table.
4. Changes to records in the Product table must propagate to the ProductReview table.
References:https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms190273.aspx
https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms188066.aspx
Question: 8
HOTSPOT
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is exactly the same in each question in this series.
You have a database that contains the following tables: BlogCategory, BlogEntry, ProductReview, Product, and SalesPerson. The tables were created using the following Transact SQL statements:
You must modify the ProductReview Table to meet the following requirements:
1. The table must reference the ProductID column in the Product table
2. Existing records in the ProductReview table must not be validated with the Product table.
3. Deleting records in the Product table must not be allowed if records are referenced by the ProductReview table.
4. Changes to records in the Product table must propagate to the ProductReview table.
You also have the following database tables: Order, ProductTypes, and SalesHistory, The transact-SQL statements for these tables are not available.
You must modify the Orders table to meet the following requirements:
1. Create new rows in the table without granting INSERT permissions to the table.
2. Notify the sales person who places an order whether or not the order was completed.
You must add the following constraints to the SalesHistory table:
- a constraint on the SaleID column that allows the field to be used as a record identifier
- a constant that uses the ProductID column to reference the Product column of the ProductTypes table
- a constraint on the CategoryID column that allows one row with a null value in the column
- a constraint that limits the SalePrice column to values greater than four
Finance department users must be able to retrieve data from the SalesHistory table for sales persons where the value of the SalesYTD column is above a certain threshold.
You plan to create a memory-optimized table named SalesOrder. The table must meet the following requirments:
- The table must hold 10 million unique sales orders.
- The table must use checkpoints to minimize I/O operations and must not use transaction logging.
- Data loss is acceptable.
Performance for queries against the SalesOrder table that use Where clauses with exact equality operations must be optimized.
You need to create an object that allows finance users to be able to retrieve the required data. The object must not have a negative performance impact.
How should you complete the Transact-SQL statements? To answer, select the appropriate Transact-SQL segments in the answer area.
Answer:
From
Question: Finance department
users mustbe able to retrieve data from the SalesHistory table for sales persons where the value of the SalesYTD column isabove a certain threshold.
CREATE VIEW (Transact-SQL) creates a virtual table whose contents (columns and rows) are defined by a query. Use this statement to create a view of the data in one or more tables in the database.
SCHEMABINDING binds the view to the schema of the underlying table or tables. When SCHEMABINDING is specified, the base table or tables cannot be modified in a way that would affect the view definition.
References:https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms187956.aspx
70-740 Practice Test Software
Question: 1
HOTSPOT
Your network contains an Active Directory forest The forest contains two domain controllers named DC1 and DC2 that run Windows Server 2016. DC1 holds all of the operations master roles.
DC1 experiences a hardware failure
You plan to use an automated process that will create 1000 user accounts
You need to ensure that the automated process can complete successfully
Which command should you run? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area
Answer:
Question: 2
HOTSPOT
Your network contains an Active Directory forest The forest contains one domain named contoso.com. The domain contains two domain controllers named DC1 and DC2. DC1 holds all of the operations master roles.
During normal network operations, you run the following commands on DC2:
Move-ADDirectoryServerOperationMasterRole -Identity "DC2" -OperationMasterRole PDCEmulator
Move-ADDirectoryServerOperationMasterRole -Identity "DC2" -OperationMasterRole RIDMaster
DC1 fails.
You remove DC1 from the network, and then you run the following command:
Move-ADDirectoryServerOperationMasterRole -Identity "DC2" -OperationMasterRole SchemaMaster
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No
Answer:
Question: 3
DRAG DROP
You install a new Nano Server named Nano1. Nano1 is a member of a workgroup and has an IP address of 192 1698 1.10.
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016.
From Server1, you need to establish a Windows PowerShell session to Nano1.
How should you complete the PowerShell script? To answer, drag the appropriate cmdlets to the correct targets Each cmdlet may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Answer:
Question: 4
HOTSPOT
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso com. The domain contains a DNS server named Server1
Server1 configured to use a forwarder named server2.contoso.com that has an IP address of 10.0.0.10.
You need to prevent Server1 from using root hints if the forwarder is unavailable.
What command should you run? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area
Answer:
Question: 5
You have a Nano Server named Nano1.
Which cmdlet should you use to identify whether the DNS Server role is installed on Nano1?
A. Find-NanoServerPackage
B. Get-Package
C. Find-Package
D. Get-WindowsOptionalFeature
Answer: B
Question: 6
HOTSPOT
Your network contains an Active Directory forest The forest contains two sites named Site1 and Site2. Site1 contains 10 domain controllers Site1 and Site2 connect to each other by using a WAN link
You run the Active Directory Domain Services Configuration Wizard as shown in the following graphic.
Server3 is the only server in Site2
Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information graphic.
Answer:
Question: 7
You deploy a Hyper-V server named Served in an isolated test environment The test environment is prevented from accessing the Internet Server1 runs the Datacenter edition of Windows Server 2016.
You plan to deploy the following guest virtual machines on the server
Which activation model should you use for the virtual machines'?
A. Multiple Activation Key (MAK)
B. Automatic Virtual Machine Activation (AVMA)
C. Original Equipment Manufacturer (OEM) key
D. Key Management Service (KMS)
Answer: B
Question: 8
HOTSPOT
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso com. The domain contains a DNS server named Server1
You enable Response Rate Limiting on Server1.
You need to prevent Response Rate Limiting from applying to hosts that reside on the network of 10.0.0.0/24.
Which cmdlets should you run? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area
Answer:
Question: 9
DRAG DROP
You are deploying DirectAccess to a server named DA1. Da1 will be located behind a firewall and will have a single network adapter The intermediary network will be IPv4.
You need to configure firewall to support DirectAccess.
Which firewall rules should you create for each type of traffic? To answer, drag the appropriate ports and protocols to the correct traffic types. Each port and protocol may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content
Answer:
Question: 10
You have a Nano Server named Nano1.
You deploy several containers to Nano1 that use an image named Image1.
You need to deploy a new container to Nano1 that uses Image1.
What should you run?
A. the Install-NanoServerPackage cmdlet
B. theInstall-WindowsFeaturecmdlet
C. the docker load command
D. the docker run command
Answer: D
Question: 11
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, white others might not have a correct solution.
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 hosts a line-of-business application named App1. App1 has a memory leak that occasionally causes the application to consume an excessive amount of memory.
You need to log an event in the Application event log whenever App1 consume more than 4 GB of memory.
Solution: You create a system configuration information data collector.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: B
70-480 PDF Training Guides
300-135 Real PDF Exam Material
Case Study: 1
Ticket 1: Switch Port Trunk
Topology Overview (Actual Troubleshooting lab design is for below network design)
- Client Should have IP 10.2.1.3
- EIGRP 100 is running between switch DSW1 & DSW2
- OSPF (Process ID 1) is running between R1, R2, R3, R4
- Network of OSPF is redistributed in EIGRP
- BGP 65001 is configured on R1 with Webserver cloud AS 65002
- HSRP is running between DSW1 & DSW2 Switches
The company has created the test bed shown in the layer 2 and layer 3 topology exhibits.
This network consists of four routers, two layer 3 switches and two layer 2 switches.
In the IPv4 layer 3 topology, R1, R2, R3, and R4 are running OSPF with an OSPF process number 1.
DSW1, DSW2 and R4 are running EIGRP with an AS of 10. Redistribution is enabled where necessary.
R1 is running a BGP AS with a number of 65001. This AS has an eBGP connection to AS 65002 in the ISP’s network. Because the company’s address space is in the private range.
R1 is also providing NAT translations between the inside (10.1.0.0/16 & 10.2.0.0/16) networks and outside (209.65.0.0/24) network.
ASW1 and ASW2 are layer 2 switches.
NTP is enabled on all devices with 209.65.200.226 serving as the master clock source.
The client workstations receive their IP address and default gateway via R4’s DHCP server.
The default gateway address of 10.2.1.254 is the IP address of HSRP group 10 which is running on DSW1 and DSW2.
In the IPv6 layer 3 topology R1, R2, and R3 are running OSPFv3 with an OSPF process number 6.
DSW1, DSW2 and R4 are running RIPng process name RIP_ZONE.
The two IPv6 routing domains, OSPF 6 and RIPng are connected via GRE tunnel running over the underlying IPv4 OSPF domain. Redistrution is enabled where necessary.
Recently the implementation group has been using the test bed to do a ‘proof-of-concept’ on several implementations. This involved changing the configuration on one or more of the devices. You will be presented with a series of trouble tickets related to issues introduced during these configurations.
Note: Although trouble tickets have many similar fault indications, each ticket has its own issue and solution.
Each ticket has 3 sub questions that need to be answered & topology remains same.
Question-1 Fault is found on which device,
Question-2 Fault condition is related to,
Question-3 What exact problem is seen & what needs to be done for solution
Client is unable to ping IP 209.65.200.241
Solution
Steps need to follow as below:-
- When we check on client 1 & Client 2 desktop we are not receiving DHCP address from R4
Ipconfig ----- Client will be getting 169.X.X.X
- On ASW1 port Fa1/0/ 1 & Fa1/0/2 access port VLAN 10 was assigned which is using IP address 10.2.1.0/24
Sh run ------- & check for running config of int fa1/0/1 & fa1/0/2
====================================================
interface FastEthernet1/0/1
switchport mode access
switchport access vlan 10
interface FastEthernet1/0/2
switchport mode access
switchport access vlan 10
====================================================
- We need to check on ASW 1 trunk port the trunk Po13 & Po23 were receiving VLAN 20 & 200 but not VLAN 10 so that switch could not get DHCP IP address and was failing to reach IP address of Internet
- Change required: On ASW1 below change is required for switch-to-switch connectivity..
int range portchannel13,portchannel23
switchport trunk allowed vlan none
switchport trunk allowed vlan 10,200
Question: 1
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a ‘proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, and FHRP services, a trouble ticket has been operated indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
Use the supported commands to Isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
On which device is the fault condition located?
A. R1
B. R2
C. R3
D. R4
E. DSW1
F. DSW2
G. ASW1
H. ASW2
Answer: G
Explanation:
Since the Clients are getting an APIPA we know that DHCP is not working. However, upon closer examination of the ASW1 configuration we can see that the problem is not with DHCP, but the fact that the trunks on the port channels are only allowing VLANs 1-9, when the clients belong to VLAN 10. VLAN 10 is not traversing the trunk on ASW1, so the problem is with the trunk configuration on ASW1.
Question: 2
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a ‘proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, and FHRP services, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
The fault condition is related to which technology?
A. NTP
B. Switch-to-Switch Connectivity
C. Access Vlans
D. Port Security
E. VLAN ACL / Port ACL
F. Switch Virtual Interface
Answer: B
Explanation:
Since the Clients are getting an APIPA we know that DHCP is not working. However, upon closer examination of the ASW1 configuration we can see that the problem is not with DHCP, but the fact that the trunks on the port channels are only allowing VLANs 1-9, when the clients belong to VLAN 10. VLAN 10 is not traversing the trunk on ASW1, so the problem is with switch to switch connectivity, specifically the trunk configuration on ASW1.
Question: 3
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a ‘proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, and FHRP services, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
What is the solution to the fault condition?
A. In Configuration mode, using the interface port-channel 13 command, then configure switchport trunk allowed vlan none followed by switchport trunk allowed vlan 20,200 commands.
- In Configuration mode, using the interface port-channel 13, port-channel 23, then configure switchport trunk none allowed vlan none followed by switchport trunk allowed vlan 10,200 commands.
C. In Configuration mode, using the interface port-channel 23 command, then configure switchport trunk allowed vlan none followed by switchport trunk allowed vlan 20,200 commands.
D. In Configuration mode, using the interface port-channel 23, port-channel, then configure switchport trunk allowed vlan none followed by switchport trunk allowed vlan 10,20,200 commands.
Answer: B
Explanation:
We need to allow VLANs 10 and 200 on the trunks to restore full connectivity. This can be accomplished by issuing the “switchport trunk allowed vlan 10,200” command on the port channels used as trunks in DSW1.
Case Study: 2
Ticket 2 : ACCESS VLAN
Topology Overview (Actual Troubleshooting lab design is for below network design)
- Client Should have IP 10.2.1.3
- EIGRP 100 is running between switch DSW1 & DSW2
- OSPF (Process ID 1) is running between R1, R2, R3, R4
- Network of OSPF is redistributed in EIGRP
- BGP 65001 is configured on R1 with Webserver cloud AS 65002
- HSRP is running between DSW1 & DSW2 Switches
The company has created the test bed shown in the layer 2 and layer 3 topology exhibits.
This network consists of four routers, two layer 3 switches and two layer 2 switches.
In the IPv4 layer 3 topology, R1, R2, R3, and R4 are running OSPF with an OSPF process number 1.
DSW1, DSW2 and R4 are running EIGRP with an AS of 10. Redistribution is enabled where necessary.
R1 is running a BGP AS with a number of 65001. This AS has an eBGP connection to AS 65002 in the ISP’s network. Because the company’s address space is in the private range.
R1 is also providing NAT translations between the inside (10.1.0.0/16 & 10.2.0.0/16) networks and outside (209.65.0.0/24) network.
ASW1 and ASW2 are layer 2 switches.
NTP is enabled on all devices with 209.65.200.226 serving as the master clock source.
The client workstations receive their IP address and default gateway via R4’s DHCP server.
The default gateway address of 10.2.1.254 is the IP address of HSRP group 10 which is running on DSW1 and DSW2.
In the IPv6 layer 3 topology R1, R2, and R3 are running OSPFv3 with an OSPF process number 6.
DSW1, DSW2 and R4 are running RIPng process name RIP_ZONE.
The two IPv6 routing domains, OSPF 6 and RIPng are connected via GRE tunnel running over the underlying IPv4 OSPF domain. Redistrution is enabled where necessary.
Recently the implementation group has been using the test bed to do a ‘proof-of-concept’ on several implementations. This involved changing the configuration on one or more of the devices. You will be presented with a series of trouble tickets related to issues introduced during these configurations.
Note: Although trouble tickets have many similar fault indications, each ticket has its own issue and solution.
Each ticket has 3 sub questions that need to be answered & topology remains same.
Question-1 Fault is found on which device,
Question-2 Fault condition is related to,
Question-3 What exact problem is seen & what needs to be done for solution
Client is unable to ping IP 209.65.200.241
Solution
Steps need to follow as below:-
- When we check on client 1 & Client 2 desktop we are not receiving DHCP address from R4
Ipconfig ----- Client will be getting 169.X.X.X
- On ASW1 port Fa1/0/ 1 & Fa1/0/2 access port VLAN 10 was assigned which is using IP address 10.2.1.0/24
Sh run ------- & check for running config of int fa1/0/1 & fa1/0/2
====================================================
====================================================
- Here we are not able to see access Vlan10 configured for Port Fa1/0/1 & Fa1/0/2
- Change required: On ASW1, for configuring Access Vlan under interface fa1/0/1 & 1/0/2 we have to enable command switchport access vlan 10
Question: 1
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a ‘proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
What is the solution to the fault condition?
A. R1
B. R2
C. R3
D. R4
E. DSW1
F. DSW2
G. ASW1
H. ASW2
Answer: G
Explanation:
The problem here is that VLAN 10 is not configured on the proper interfaces on switch ASW1.
Question: 2
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a ‘proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
The fault condition is related to switch technology?
A. NTP
B. Switch-to-Switch Connectivity
C. Loop Prevention
D. Access Vlans
E. VLAN ACL Port ACL
F. Switch Virtual Interface
G. Port Security
Answer: D
Explanation:
The problem here is that VLAN 10 is not configured on the proper interfaces on switch ASW1.
Question: 3
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a ‘proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
What is the solution to the fault condition?
A. In Configuration mode, using the interface range Fastethernet 1/0/1 – 2, then switchport mode access vlan 10 command.
B. In Configuration mode, using the interface range Fastethernet 1/0/1 – 2, then switchport access mode vlan 10 command.
C. In Configuration mode, using the interface range Fastethernet 1/0/1 – 2, then switchport vlan 10 access command.
D. In Configuration mode, using the interface range Fastethernet 1/0/1 – 2, then switchport access vlan 10 command.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The problem here is that VLAN 10 is not configured on the proper interfaces on switch ASW1.
300-101 Real Exam
Question: 1
Refer to the exhibit.
Based on this FIB table, which statement is correct?
A. There is no default gateway.
B. The IP address of the router on FastEthernet is 209.168.201.1.
C. The gateway of last resort is 192.168.201.1.
D. The router will listen for all multicast traffic.
Answer: C
Question: 2
Refer to the exhibit.
A network administrator checks this adjacency table on a router. What is a possible cause for the incomplete marking?
A. incomplete ARP information
B. incorrect ACL
C. dynamic routing protocol failure
D. serial link congestion
Answer: A
Question: 3
A network engineer notices that transmission rates of senders of TCP traffic sharply increase and decrease simultaneously during periods of congestion. Which condition causes this?
A. global synchronization
B. tail drop
C. random early detection
D. queue management algorithm
Answer: A
Question: 4
Which three problems result from application mixing of UDP and TCP streams within a network with no QoS? (Choose three.)
A. starvation
B. jitter
C. latency
D. windowing
E. lower throughput
Answer: A, C, E
Question: 5
Which method allows IPv4 and IPv6 to work together without requiring both to be used for a single connection during the migration process?
A. dual-stack method
B. 6to4 tunneling
C. GRE tunneling
D. NAT-PT
Answer: A
Question: 6
Which statement about the use of tunneling to migrate to IPv6 is true?
A. Tunneling is less secure than dual stack or translation.
B. Tunneling is more difficult to configure than dual stack or translation.
C. Tunneling does not enable users of the new protocol to communicate with users of the old protocol without dual-stack hosts.
D. Tunneling destinations are manually determined by the IPv4 address in the low-order 32 bits of IPv4-compatible IPv6 addresses.
Answer: C
Question: 7
A network administrator executes the command clear ip route. Which two tables does this command clear and rebuild? (Choose two.)
A. IP routing
B. FIB
C. ARP cache
D. MAC address table
E. Cisco Express Forwarding table
F. topology table
Answer: A, B
Question: 8
Which switching method is used when entries are present in the output of the command show ip cache?
A. fast switching
B. process switching
C. Cisco Express Forwarding switching
D. cut-through packet switching
Answer: A
Question: 9
Which two actions must you perform to enable and use window scaling on a router? (Choose two.)
A. Execute the command ip tcp window-size 65536.
B. Set window scaling to be used on the remote host.
C. Execute the command ip tcp queuemax.
D. Set TCP options to "enabled" on the remote host.
E. Execute the command ip tcp adjust-mss.
Answer: A, B
Question: 10
Which three TCP enhancements can be used with TCP selective acknowledgments? (Choose three.)
A. header compression
B. explicit congestion notification
C. keepalive
D. time stamps
E. TCP path discovery
F. MTU window
Answer: B, C, D
Question: 11
A network administrator uses IP SLA to measure UDP performance and notices that packets on one router have a higher one-way delay compared to the opposite direction. Which UDP characteristic does this scenario describe?
A. latency
B. starvation
C. connectionless communication
D. nonsequencing unordered packets
E. jitter
Answer: A
Question: 12
Under which condition does UDP dominance occur?
A. when TCP traffic is in the same class as UDP
B. when UDP flows are assigned a lower priority queue
C. when WRED is enabled
D. when ACLs are in place to block TCP traffic
Answer: A
Question: 13
Prior to enabling PPPoE in a virtual private dialup network group, which task must be completed?
A. Disable CDP on the interface.
B. Execute the vpdn enable command.
C. Execute the no switchport command.
D. Enable QoS FIFO for PPPoE support.
Answer: B
Question: 14
A network engineer has been asked to ensure that the PPPoE connection is established and authenticated using an encrypted password. Which technology, in combination with PPPoE, can be used for authentication in this manner?
A. PAP
B. dot1x
C. IPsec
D. CHAP
E. ESP
Answer: D
Question: 15
A corporate policy requires PPPoE to be enabled and to maintain a connection with the ISP, even if no interesting traffic exists. Which feature can be used to accomplish this task?
A. TCP Adjust
B. Dialer Persistent
C. PPPoE Groups
D. half-bridging
E. Peer Neighbor Route
Answer: B
300-075 Study Guides
Question: 1
Which parameter should be set to prevent H.323 endpoints from registering to Cisco TelePresence Video Communication Server automatically?
A. On the VCS, navigate to Configuration, Protocols, H.323, and set Auto Discover to off.
B. On the VCS, navigate to Configuration, Protocols, H.323, and set Auto Registration to off.
C. On the VCS, navigate to Configuration, Registration, Allow List, and set Auto Registration to off.
D. On the VCS, navigate to Configuration, Registration, Configuration, and set Auto Registration to off.
Answer: A
Question: 2
Refer to the exhibit.
Which statement is true?
A. Endpoints can make calls to unknown IP addresses without the VCS querying any neighbors.
B. If the VCS receives a call to an unknown IP address, it queries its neighbors for the remote address and if permitted, it routes the call through the neighbor.
C. Endpoints that are registered directly to the VCS can call only an IP address of a system that is also registered directly to that VCS.
D. Dialing by IP address is not supported on VCS.
Answer: A
Question: 3
A local gateway is registered to Cisco TelePresence Video Communication Server with a prefix of 7. The administrator wants to stop calls from outside the organization being routed through it. Which CPL configuration accomplishes this goal?
Answer: A
Question: 4
Which type of search message appears in the Cisco TelePresence Video Communication Server search history page when it receives a H.323 call from a RAS-enabled endpoint that originates from an external zone?
A. ARQ
B. SETUP
C. LRQ
D. INVITE
E. OPTIONS
Answer: C
Question: 5
Widgets.com's Cisco TelePresence Video Communication Server allows SIP and H.323 registrations. Which local zone search rule configuration allows SIP registered endpoints to connect to H.323 endpoints that register with an H.323 E.164 number only?
Answer: D
Question: 6
You want to avoid unnecessary interworking in Cisco TelePresence Video Communication Server, such as where a call between two H.323 endpoints is made over SIP, or vice versa.
Which setting is recommended?
A. H.323 - SIP interworking mode. Reject
B. H.323 - SIP interworking mode. On
C. H.323 - SIP interworking mode. Registered only
D. H.323 - SIP interworking mode. Off
E. H.323 - SIP interworking mode. Variable
Answer: C
Question: 7
Which three statements about configuring an encrypted trunk between Cisco TelePresence Video Communication Server and Cisco Unified Communications Manager are true? (Choose three.)
A. The root CA of the VCS server certificate must be loaded in Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
B. A SIP trunk security profile must be configured with Incoming Transport Type set to TCP+UDP.
C. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager trunk configuration must have the destination port set to 5061.
D. A SIP trunk security profile must be configured with Device Security Mode set to TLS.
E. A SIP trunk security profile must be configured with the X.509 Subject Name from the VCS certificate.
F. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager zone configured in VCS must have SIP authentication trust mode set to On.
G. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager zone configured in VCS must have TLS verify mode set to Off.
Answer: A, C, E
Question: 8
Which two statements about configuring mobile and remote access on Cisco TelePresence Video Communication Server Expressway are true? (Choose two.)
A. The traversal server zone on Expressway-C must have a TLS verify subject name configured.
B. The traversal client zone and the traversal server zone Media encryption mode must be set to Force encrypted.
C. The traversal client zone and the traversal server zone Media encryption mode must be set to Auto.
D. The traversal client zone on Expressway-C Media encryption mode must be set to Auto.
E. The traversal client zone and the traversal server zone must be set to SIP TLS with TLS verify mode set to On.
Answer: B, E
Question: 9
Which two actions ensure that the call load from Cisco TelePresence Video Communication Server to a Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster is shared across Unified CM nodes? (Choose two.)
A. Create a neighbor zone in VCS with the Unified CM nodes listed as location peer addresses.
B. Create a single traversal client zone in VCS with the Unified CM nodes listed as location peer addresses.
C. Create one neighbor zone in VCS for each Unified CM node.
D. Create a VCS DNS zone and configure one DNS SRV record per Unified CM node.
E. In VCS set Unified Communications mode to Mobile and remote access and configure each Unified CM node.
Answer: A, E
Question: 10
Which two options are configuration steps on Cisco Unified Communications Manager that are used when integrating with VCS Expressway servers? (Choose two.)
A. allowing numeric dialing from Cisco phones to Expressway
B. configuring a device pool with video feature enabled
C. allowing dialing to Expressway domain from Cisco phones
D. creating an application user on Cisco Unified Communications Manager with assigned privileges
E. adding the Expressway servers to the Application Servers list
Answer: A, C
Question: 11
Which two statements regarding IPv4 Static NAT address 209.165.200.230 has been configured on a VCS Expressway are true? (Choose two.)
A. The Advanced Networking or Dual Network Interfaces option key has been installed.
B. VCS rewrites the Layer 3 source address of outbound SIP and H.323 packets to 209.165.200.230.
C. VCS applies 209.165.200.230 to outbound SIP and H.323 payload messages.
D. With static NAT enabled on the LAN2 interface, VCS applies 209.165.200.230 to outbound H.323 and SIP payload traffic exiting the LAN1 interface.
Answer: A, C
Question: 12
Which configuration does Cisco recommend for the peer address on the Expressway-C secure traversal zone when the Expressway-E has one NIC enabled?
A. Expressway-E internal IP address
B. Expressway-E external IP address
C. Expressway-E internal FQDN
D. Expressway-E external FQDN
Answer: B
Question: 13
If delegated credentials checking has been enabled and remote workers can register to the VCS Expressway, which statement is true?
A. H.323 message credential checks are delegated.
B. SIP registration proxy mode is set to On in the VCS Expressway.
C. A secure neighbor zone has been configured between the VCS Expressway and the VCS Control.
D. SIP registration proxy mode is set to Off in the VCS Expressway.
Answer: D
Question: 14
Which two options should be used to create a secure traversal zone between the Expressway-C and Expressway-E? (Choose two.)
A. Expressway-C and Expressway-E must trust each other's server certificate.
B. One Cisco Unified Communications traversal zone for H.323 and SIP connections.
C. A separate pair of traversal zones must be configured if an H.323 connection is required and Interworking is disabled.
D. Enable username and password authentication verification on Expressway-E.
E. Create a set of username and password on each of the Expressway-C and Expressway-E to authenticate the neighboring peer.
Answer: A, C
Question: 15
Which two statements regarding you configuring a traversal server and traversal client relationship are true? (Choose two.)
A. VCS supports only the H.460.18/19 protocol for H.323 traversal calls.
B. VCS supports either the Assent or the H.460.18/19 protocol for H.323 traversal calls.
C. VCS supports either the Assent or the H.460.18/19 protocol for SIP traversal calls.
D. If the Assent protocol is configured, a TCP/TLS connection is established from the traversal client to the traversal server for SIP signaling.
E. A VCS Expressway located in the public network or DMZ acts as the firewall traversal client.
Answer: B, D
70-980 Certification Guides
Case Study: 1
Contoso Ltd Case A
Overview
Contoso, Ltd., is a healthcare company in Europe that has 2,000 users. The company is migrating to Windows Server 2012.
The company has two main offices and two branch offices. The main offices are located in Paris and Amsterdam. One of the branch offices is a sales office located in Berlin. The other branch office is a research office located in Brussels.
The offices connect to each other by using a WAN link.
Current Environment
Active Directory
The network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. An Active Directory site exists for each office.
The forest contains a child domain named research.contoso.com.
The functional level of both the domains is Windows Server 2008.
In each site, there are two domain controllers for the contoso.com domain and two domain controllers for the research.contoso.com domain. The domain controllers run Windows Server 2008 R2.
All of the domain controllers are global catalog servers.
The FSMO roles were not moved since the domains were deployed.
Network Infrastructure
All servers run Windows Server 2008 R2.
Each user has a laptop computer that runs Windows 7.
The company has 10 print servers. Each print server contains several shared printers.
The company has 10 file servers that have the following disk configurations:
- A simple volume named C that is the System and Boot volume and is formatted NTFS
- A mounted virtual hard disk (VHD) named DATA that is formatted NTFS
- A simple volume named D that is formatted FAT32
- A simple volume named E that is formatted NTFS
- A Clustered Shared Volume (CSV)
The Paris office contains a server named PA1. The Amsterdam office contains a server named AM1.
Both servers have the following server roles installed:
- DNS Server
- DHCP Server
- Remote Access
The DNS servers are configured to use the DNS servers of the company's Internet Service Provider (ISP) as forwarders.
Users often work remotely. The users access the internal network by using an SSTP-based VPN connection.
Requirements
Planned Changes
The company plans to implement the following changes:
- Create a child domain named sales.contoso.com. Only the domain controllers in sales.contoso.com will host a zone for the sales.contoso.com domain. The domain controllers in sales.contoso.com will run Windows Server 2012. The client computers in sales.contoso.com will use the sales.contoso.com domain controllers as their DNS servers.
- Implement two servers in the Amsterdam office and two servers in the Paris office to replace PA1 and AMI. These new servers will run Windows Server 2012 and will not have shared storage.
- Decommission the research.contoso.com domain. All of the users and the Group Policy objects (GPOs) in research.contoso.com will be migrated to contoso.com.
- Migrate the existing print queues to virtualized instances of Windows Server 2012.
- Migrate the file servers to new servers that run Windows Server 2012.
- Implement RADIUS authentication for VPN connections.
- Deploy Windows Server 2012 to all new servers.
Technical Requirements
The company identifies following technical requirements:
- All changes to Group Policies must be logged.
- Network Access Protection (NAP) policies must be managed centrally.
- Core networking services in each office must be redundant if a server fails.
- The possibility of IP address conflicts during the DHCP migration must be minimized.
- A central log of the IP address leases and the users associated to those leases must be created.
- All of the client computers must be able to resolve internal names and internet names.
- Administrators in the Paris office need to deploy a series of desktop restrictions to the entire company by using Group Policy.
- The new sales.contoso.com domain will contain a web application that will access data from a Microsoft SQL Server located in the contoso.com domain. The web application must use integrated Windows authentication. Users' credentials must be passed from the web applications to the SQL Server.
Question: 1
You implement and authorize the new DHCP servers. You import the server configurations and the scope configurations from PA1 and AM1.
You need to ensure that clients can obtain DHCP address assignments after you shut down PA1 and AM1. The solution must meet the technical requirements.
What should you do?
A. Run the Get-DhcpServerv4Lease cmdlet and the Remove-DhcpServerv4Lease cmdlet. Run the Windows Server Migration Tools.
B.Run the Get-DhcpServerv4Lease cmdlet and the Add-DhcpServerv4Lease cmdlet. Activate the scopes.
C.Run the Get-DhcpServerv4FreeIPAddress cmdlet and the Invoke-DhcpServerv4FailoverReplication cmdlet. Run the Windows Server Migration Tools.
D.Run the Get-DhcpServerv4FreeIPAddress cmdlet and the Invoke-DhcpServerv4FailoverReplication cmdlet Activate the scopes.
Answer: B
The Get-DhcpServerv4Lease cmdlet gets one or more lease records from the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server service.
The Add-DhcpServerv4Lease cmdlet adds a new IPv4 address lease on the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server service. This cmdlet is only supported for DHCP server service running on Windows Server® 2012.
Question: 2
You need to recommend a management solution for the GPOs. The solution must meet the technical requirements. What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Microsoft Baseline Security Analyzer (MBSA)
B.Microsoft Desktop Optimization Pack (MDOP)
C.Microsoft System Center 2012 Operations Manager
D.Microsoft System Center 2012 Data Protection Manager (DPM)
Answer: B
Explanation:
* Scenario:
/ All changes to Group Policies must be logged.
/ Administrators in the Paris office need to deploy a series of desktop restrictions to the entire company by using Group Policy.
* Microsoft Desktop Optimization Pack
Windows Vista Enterprise helps global organizations and enterprises with complex IT infrastructures lower IT costs, reduce risk, and stay connected. The Microsoft Desktop
Optimization Pack for Software Assurance further extends this value by reducing application deployment costs, enabling delivery of applications as services, and allowing for better management and control of enterprise desktop environments. Together these technologies deliver a highly cost-effective and flexible Windows desktop management solution.
What is the Microsoft Desktop Optimization Pack?
The Microsoft Desktop Optimization Pack (MDOP) for Software Assurance is an add-on subscription license available to Software Assurance customers. It uses innovative technologies to help reduce the total cost of ownership (TCO) of the Windows desktop by accelerating operating system and application management and enhancing IT responsiveness and end-user uptime. It will enable you to better control the desktop, accelerate and simplify desktop deployments and management, and create a dynamic infrastructure by turning software into centrally managed services.
MDOP facilitates accelerated deployment and manageability of Windows through these innovative technologies— available only to Windows Software Assurance customers.
Reference:
Microsoft Desktop Optimization Pack
URL: http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc507880.aspx
Question: 3
You are planning the decommissioning of research.contoso.com.
You need to ensure that an administrator named Admin5 in the research department can manage the user accounts that are migrated to contoso.com. The solution must minimize the number of permissions assigned to Admin5.
What should you do before you migrate the user accounts?
A. Run the New-Object cmdlet, and then run the Add-ADPrincipalGroupMembershipcmdlet.
B.Create a new organizational unit (OU), and then add Admin5 to the Account Operators group.
C.Create a new organizational unit (OU), and then run the Delegation of Control Wizard.
D.Run the New-Object cmdlet, and then run the Add-ADCentralAccessPolicyMembercmdlet.
Answer: C
Explanation:
* Scenario: Decommission the research.contoso.com domain. All of the users and the Group Policy objects (GPOs) in research.contoso.com will be migrated to contoso.com.
Reference:
Delegation of Control Wizard
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dd145344.aspx
Question: 4
You need to recommend changes to the DNS environment that support the implementation of the sales.contoso.com domain. The solution must ensure that the users in all of the domains can resolve both Internet names and the names of the servers in all of the internal domains.
What should you recommend?
A. On the DNS servers in contoso.com, configure a reverse lookup zone. On the DNS servers in sales.contoso.com, configure a conditional forwarder to contoso.com.
B.On the DNS servers in contoso.com, add a conditional forwarder to the sales.contoso.com zone. On the DNS servers in sales.contoso.com, add a forwarder to the DNS servers of the company's ISP.
C.On the DNS servers in contoso.com, create a zone delegation in the contoso.com zone. On the DNS servers in sales.contoso.com, add a forwarder to the contoso.com DNS servers.
D.On the DNS servers in contoso.com, configure a conditional forwarder to sales.contoso.com. On the DNS servers in sales.contoso.com, configure a reverse zone.
Answer: C
Scenario: The client computers in sales.contoso.com will use the sales.contoso.com domain controllers as their DNS servers.
Question: 5
You are evaluating the implementation of data deduplication on the planned Windows Server 2012 file servers.
The planned servers will have the identical disk configurations as the current servers.
You need to identify which volumes can be enabled for data deduplication.
Which volumes should you identify? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. C
B.D
C.E
D. The CSV
E.DATA
Answer: C, E
Explanation:
* Scenario:
A mounted virtual hard disk (VHD) named DATA that is formatted NTFS
A simple volume named E that is formatted NTFS
* Note: Data Deduplication feature doesn't do everything in this version. It is only available in certain Windows Server 2012 editions and has some limitations. Deduplication was built for NTFS data volumes and it does not support boot or system drives and cannot be used with
Cluster Shared Volumes (CSV). We don't support deduplicating live VMs or running SQL databases. See how to determine which volumes are candidates for deduplication on Technet.
Incorrect:
Not A: Volume C is a boot volume. Data deduplication does not work on boot volumes.
Not B: Volume B is FAT32 volume. Data deduplication requires NTFS.
Not D: Deduplication cannot be used with CSV.
Question: 6
You are planning the implementation of two new servers that will be configured as RADIUS servers.
You need to recommend which configuration must be performed on the VPN servers. The solution must meet the technical requirements.
What should you do on each VPN server?
A. Add a RADIUS client.
B.Install the Health Registration Authority role service.
C.Enable DirectAccess.
D.Modify the authentication provider.
Answer: D
Explanation:
* Implement RADIUS authentication for VPN connections.
* The new sales.contoso.com domain will contain a web application that will access data from a Microsoft SQL Server located in the contoso.com domain. The web application must use integrated Windows authentication. Users' credentials must be passed from the web applications to the SQL Server.
Question: 7
You need to recommend which changes must be implemented to the network before you can deploy the new web application.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Change the forest functional level to Windows Server 2008 R2.
B.Upgrade the DNS servers to Windows Server 2012.
C.Change the functional level of both the domains to Windows Server 2008 R2.
D.Upgrade the domain controllers to Windows Server 2012.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The web application is in the sales.contoso.com domain, which will have Windows Server 2012 Domain controllers. We should therefore upgrade the other domain controller to Windows Server 2012.
Scenario:
* The new sales.contoso.com domain will contain a web application that will access data from a Microsoft SQL Server located in the contoso.com domain. The web application must use integrated Windows authentication. Users' credentials must be passed from the web applications to the SQL Server.
* Planned changes include: create a child domain named sales.contoso.com. Only the domain controllers in sales.contoso.com will host a zone for the sales.contoso.com domain. The domain controllers in sales.contoso.com will run Windows Server 2012.
Question: 8
You need to recommend a fault-tolerant solution for the VPN. The solution must meet the technical requirements.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Network adapter teaming
B.Network Load Balancing (NLB)
C.Failover Clustering
D.DirectAccess
Answer: B
Explanation:
* Scenario: Core networking services in each office must be redundant if a server fails.
* The Network Load Balancing (NLB) feature distributes traffic across several servers by using the TCP/IP networking protocol. By combining two or more computers that are running applications into a single virtual cluster, NLB provides reliability and performance for web servers and other mission-critical servers.
Reference:
Network Load Balancing Overview
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh831698.aspx
Question: 9
You are planning the migration of research.contoso.com.
You need to identify which tools must be used to perform the migration.
Which tools should you identify?
A. Active Directory Migration Tool version 3.2 (ADMT v3.2) and Group Policy Management
Console (GPMC)
B. Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) and Microsoft Federation Gateway
C. Active Directory Migration Tool version 3.2 (ADMT v3.2) and Active Directory Federation
Services (AD FS)
D. Active Directory Lightweight Directory Services (AD LDS) and Group Policy Management
Console (GPMC)
Answer: A
Explanation:
* Scenario:
All of the users and the Group Policy objects (GPOs) in research.contoso.com will be migrated to contoso.com.
two domain controllers for the research.contoso.com domain. The domain controllers run Windows Server 2008 R2.
Question: 10
You need to recommend a solution for DHCP logging. The solution must meet the technical requirement.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Event subscriptions
B. IP Address Management (IPAM)
C. DHCP audit logging
D. DHCP filtering
Answer: B
* Scenario: A central log of the IP address leases and the users associated to those leases must be created.
* Feature description
IPAM in Windows Server 2012 is a new built-in framework for discovering, monitoring, auditing, and managing the IP address space used on a corporate network. IPAM provides for administration and monitoring of servers running Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) and Domain Name Service (DNS). IPAM includes components for:
• Automatic IP address infrastructure discover)': IPAM discovers domain controllers, DHCP servers, and DNS servers in the domains you choose. You can enable or disable management of these servers by IPAM.
• Custom IP address space display, reporting, and management: The display of IP addresses is highly customizable and detailed tracking and utilization data is available. IPv4 and IPv6 address space is organized into IP address blocks, IP address ranges, and individual IP addresses. IP addresses are assigned built-in or user-defined fields that can be used to further organize IP address space into hierarchical, logical groups.
• Audit of server configuration changes and tracking of IP address usage: Operational events are displayed for the IPAM server and managed DHCP servers. IPAM also enables IP address tracking using DHCP lease events and user logon events collected from Network Policy Server (NPS), domain controllers, and DHCP servers. Tracking is available by IP address, client ID, host name, or user name.
• Monitoring and management of DHCP and DNS services: IPAM enables automated service availability monitoring for Microsoft DHCP and DNS servers across the forest. DNS zone health is displayed, and detailed DHCP server and scope management is available using the IPAM console.
Reference:
IP Address Management (IPAM) Overview
Question: 11
After the planned upgrade to Windows Server 2012, you restore a user account from the Active Directory Recycle Bin.
You need to replicate the restored user account as quickly as possible.
Which cmdlets should you run?
A. Get-ADReplicationSite and Set-ADReplicationConnection
B. Get-ADReplicationAttributeMetadata and Compare-Object
C. Get-ADReplicationUpToDatenessVectorTable and Set-ADReplicationSite
D. Get ADDomainController and Sync-ADObject
Answer: D
Explanation:
* Scenario:
All of the domain controllers are global catalog servers.
The FSMO roles were not moved since the domains were deployed.
* Example: The following command replicates the user “James” to all the domain controllers:
Get-ADDomainController -filter * | ForEach {Sync-ADObject -object “CN=James, OU=BusinessUsers, DC=Test, DC=Local” -source NKAD1 -destination $_.hostname}
Note:
* The Get-ADDomainController cmdlet gets the domain controllers specified by the parameters.
You can get domain controllers by setting the Identity, Filter or Discover parameters.
* The Sync-ADObject cmdlet replicates a single object between any two domain controllers that have partitions in common. The two domain controllers do not need to be direct replication partners. It can also be used to populate passwords in a read-only domain controller (RODC) cache.
Reference:
Get-ADDomainController, Sync-ADObject
Question: 12
You implement a new virtualized print server that runs Windows Server 2012.
You need to migrate the print queues.
Which tool should you use?
A. Windows Server Migration Tools
B. Active Directory Migration Tool (ADMT)
C. Print Management
D. Computer Management
Answer: C
Explanation:
* Scenario: Migrate the existing print queues to virtualized instances of Windows Server 2012.
* To manage the migration process, use one of the following:
The Printer Migration Wizard, which you access through Print Management, a snap-in in
Microsoft Management Console (MMC).
The Printbrm.exe command-line tool.
You can perform the migration locally or remotely, and from either a client computer or server.
Important
As a best practice, run the Printer Migration Wizard or Printbrm.exe from a computer running Windows Server 2012
* Reference:
Migrate Print and Document Services to Windows Server 2012
Question: 13
What method should you use to deploy servers?
A. WDS
B. AIK
C. ADK
D. EDT
Answer: A
WDS is a server role that enables you to remotely deploy Windows operating systems. You can use it to set up new computers by using a network-based installation. This means that you do not have to install each operating system directly from a CD, USB drive, or DVD.
Reference:
What's New in Windows Deployment Services in Windows Server
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dn281955.aspx
210-065 Passing Guarantee Exam
Question: 1
Which four features are provided by Cisco TelePresence Management Suite? (Choose four.)
A. Scheduling of video conference calls
B. Built-in-bridge functionality for multiparty video conferences
C. SIP-H.323 protocol interworking
D. Centralized management of conference resources
E. SMTP email event notification
F. Endpoint configuration backup and restore
G. Cisco TelePresence endpoint automated redundancy
H. Automated resource optimization
Answer: A, D, E, F
Question: 2
Which three features are supported by Cisco TMSPE? (Choose three.)
A. Simplified provisioning
B. LDAP user import
C. Scheduling via Microsoft Outlook
D. FindMe
E. Jabber for Windows
F. Automatic endpoint upgrades
Answer: A, B, D
Question: 3
Management wants to modify Cisco TMS to allow users to configure the call behavior with their associated devices and dial from a single ID. Which feature needs to be enabled and configured?
A. Smart Scheduler
B. Low-touch Provisioning
C. FindMe
D. CMR Provisioning
Answer: C
Question: 4
Refer to the exhibit.
Which configuration item shown in the exhibit should be used to assign the internal and external video communication server address for this group of users?
A. User Settings > Video Address pattern
B. Administrative Tools > User Settings
C. Configuration Template > Edit Template
D. User Import > Configuration
Answer: C
Question: 5
Which scheduling and management application can be installed on any hardware platform that meets the minimum specifications that the end customer decides to deploy?
A. Cisco Video Communications
B. Cisco TelePresence Management Suite
C. Cisco Digital Media Manager
D. Cisco TelePresence Management Switch
E. Cisco Unified Communications Manager
Answer: B
Question: 6
Which encoder is best suited for professional, studio-quality audio and video processing?
A. Scientific Atlanta Encoder
B. Cisco Digital Media Encoder 1000
C. Cisco Digital Media Encoder 2000
D. Cisco Digital Media Encoder 3000
Answer: C
Question: 7
In an ISR Cisco Video Management and Storage System, what is the maximum storage capacity allowed per module?
A. 1 TB per module
B. 2 TB per module
C. 3 TB per module
D. 500 MB per module
E. 750 MB per module
F. 850 MB per module
Answer: A
Question: 8
Which Cisco TelePresence multipoint platform utilizes only Cisco Unified Communications Manager for call control?
A. Cisco TelePresence Multipoint Control Unit
B. Cisco TelePresence Multipoint Switch
C. Cisco TelePresence Server
D. Cisco TelePresence Media Bridge Server
E. Cisco TelePresence System 500-32
F. Cisco TelePresence SX20
Answer: B
Question: 9
Which well-known port is used to access the Cisco IP Video Surveillance Operations Manager via a secure, ActiveX web session?
A. 20
B. 80
C. 421
D. 434
E. 443
F. 8080
Answer: E
Question: 10
When a call is placed from a Cisco VCS registered SIP-only endpoint to an H.323-only endpoint, which type of call license is consumed?
A. traversal call
B. non-traversal call
C. on-net call
D. interworking call
E. off-net call
F. Cisco Unified Workspace Licensing
Answer: A
Question: 11
Which protocol does the Cisco TelePresence Content Server use for call signaling?
A. MGCP
B. Cisco Proprietary
C. SCCP
D. H.323
Answer: D
Question: 12
XYZ Corporation has more than 1000 Cisco video endpoints and they want a high availability solution for scheduling and OBTP. Which option do you recommend?
A. standalone Cisco TelePresence Manager server
B. cluster of Cisco TelePresence Manager servers
C. standalone Cisco TelePresence Management Suite server
D. cluster of Cisco TelePresence Management Suite servers in active/passive failover mode
E. load-balanced cluster of Cisco TelePresence Management Suite servers
F. Cisco Prime collaboration manager
Answer: D
Question: 13
In the H.264 video codec, which type of video frame is sent when the remote side requests a fast picture update?
A. I-frame
B. P-frame
C. B-frame
D. C-frame
Answer: A
Question: 14
Refer to the exhibit.
Which system does this web user interface refer to?
A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager
B. Cisco Video Communications Server
C. Cisco Digital Media Manager
D. Cisco TelePresence Management Suite
Answer: D
Question: 15
Which description of medianet is true?
A. A set of protocols that accelerate the delivery of media across the network
B. A family of switches and routers that support multimedia applications
C. When the network works together with the endpoints to scale, optimize, and enhance the performance of collaboration components
D. A capability of the network to enhance video streaming quality
E. A Cisco proprietary feature that is built on hardware DSP resources
Answer: C
400-101 PDF Training Guides
Question: 1
What are two of the commands that you can enter to gracefully shut down OSPF and notify neighbors?(Choose two)
A. router(config-if)# ip ospf graceful shutdown
B. router(config-if)# ip ospf shutdown
C. router(config-router)# shutdown
D. router(config-router)# graceful shutdown
E. router(config)# ip notify
Answer: BC
Question: 2
A packet from network 10.0.1.0/24 destined for network 10.0.2.0/24 arrives at Rl on interface GiO/0, but the router drops the packet instead of transmitting it out interface Gi0/1.
Which feature that is configured on R1 can cause this problem?
A. UDLC
B. split horizon
C. uRPF
D. spanning tree
Answer: C
Question: 3
Which three service offer VLAN transparency for WAN Ethernet services? (Choose three)
A. ERMS
B. EPL
C. ERS
D. MPLS
E. EMS
F. EWS
Answer: BEF
Question: 4
What are two mechanisms that directed ARP uses to help resolve IP addresses to hardware addresses? (Choose two)
A. It removes address-resolution restrictions, allowing dynamic protocols to advertise rou information for the device loopback address.
B. It uses ICMP redirects to advertise next-hop addresses to foreign hosts
C. It uses series of ICMP echo messages to relay next-hop addresses.
D. It removes address-resolution restrictions, allowing dynamic protocols to advertise routing information for the next-hop address.
E. t uses a proxy mechanism to allow a device to respond to ARP requests for the addresses of other devices
Answer: BD
Question: 5
Exhibit:
Your network is suffering excessive output drops. Which two actions can you take to resolve the problem? (Choose two.)
A. Install a switch with larger buffers.
B. Configure a different queue set.
C. Reconfigure the switch buffers.
D. Configure the server application to use TCP.
E. Update the server operating system.
Answer: A B
Question: 6
Which two statements about DMVPN with NHRP are true? (Choose two)
A. NHRP shortens the configuration of the hub router.
B. NHRP dynamically provides information about the spoke routers to the hub.
C. NHRP disables multicast
D. The hub router uses NHRP to initiate the GRE tunnel with spokes.
E. The spoke routers act as the NHRP servers.
Answer: AB
Question: 7
Which two statements about private VLAN communications are true? (Choose two)
A. Primary VLAN traffic is passed across trunk interfaces.
B. Isolated ports communicate with other isolated ports.
C. Promiscuous ports communicate with all other ports.
D. Promiscuous ports connect only to routers.
Answer: AC
Question: 8
Which command can you use to redistribute IBGP routes into the IGP?
A. no synchronization
B. redistribute protocol process-number
C. bgp redistribute-internal
D. synchronization
Answer: C
Question: 9
Which two statements about VPLS are true? (Choose two)
A. The service provider provisions CE devices.
B. It transmits broadcast traffic more efficiently than Ethernet switches.
C. It uses broadcast replication to transmit Ethernet packets with multicast MAC addresses.
D. It enables CE devices to operate as part of an L3 VPN.
E. It enables CE devices on different networks to operate as if they were in the same LAN.
F. It enables PE and CE devices to operate as if they were routing neighbors.
Answer: CE
Question: 10
Which two services are used to transport Layer 2 frames across a packet-switched network? (Choose two.)
A. Frame Relay
B. ATM
C. AToM
D. L2TPv3
Answer: CD
Question: 11
Exhibit:
Which option describes the meaning of this console message?
A. An EIGRP hold timer has expired.
B. FastEthernetO/O has interface errors.
C. An EIGRP process has been shut down.
D. An interface has gone down.
Answer: C
Question: 12
Which two statements about Cisco Express Forwarding are true? (Choose two)
A. The FIB table and the adjacency table reside on the line cards when distributed Cisco Express Forwarding is enabled.
B. Layer 2 next-hop address information is maintained in the adjacency table.
C. The FIB table and the adjacency table reside on the line cards when Cisco Express Forwarding is enabled.
D. Layer 2 next-hop address information is maintained in the FIB table.
E. The FIB table resides on the route processor and the adjacency table resides on the line cards when Cisco Express Forwarding is enabled.
Answer: AB
Question: 13
When is it useful to disable split horizon on an EIGRP interface?
A. Disable it when you want to provide additional backup paths in your network.
B. Disable it when you want to send routes that are learned from another routing protocol to peer on the same interface.
C. Disable it when you need to send updates to peers on the interface on which the updates were received.
D. It is never advisable to disable split horizon on an EIGRP interface.
Answer: C
Question: 14
Which two statements about RIPng are true? (Choose two)
A. IPv6 can support as many as 8 equal-cost routes.
B. IPv6 can support as many as 32 equal-cost routes.
C. A route with a metric of 15 is advertised as unreachable.
D. Both inbound and outbound route filtering can be implemented on a single interface.
E. 16 is the maximum metric it can advertise.
Answer: DE
Question: 15
Which two statements about TCP MSS are true? (Choose two.)
A. The two endpoints in a TCP connection report their MSS values to one another.
B. It operates at Layer 3.
C. MSS values are sent in TCP SYN packets
D. It sets the maximum amount of data that a host sends in an individual datagram
E. It sets the minimum amount of data that a host accepts in an individual datagram
Answer: CD
Question: 16
which three statements about automatic 6to4 tunneling are true?(choose three)
A. It allows an IPV6 domain to be connected over an IPV4 network
B. 6to4 tunnels are configured only in a point-point configuration
C. It allows an IPV4 domain to be connected over an IPV6 network
D. The IPV4 address embedded into the IPV6 address is used to find other of the tunnel
E. The MAC address embedded into the IPV6 address is used to find the other end of the tunnel
F. 6to4 tunnels are configured in a point-to-mulitipoint configuration
Answer: ADF
Question: 17
Which two statements about OSPF route filtering are true? (Choose two)
A. It can be based on the source router ID.
B. It can be based on the external route tag.
C. It affects LSA flooding.
D. It can be based on the as-path.
E. It can be based on distance-
Answer: AB
Question: 18
Which three parameters must match to establish OSPF neighbor adjacency? (Choose three.)
A. the process ID
B. the hello interval
C. the subnet mask
D. authentication
E. the router ID
F. the OSPF interface priority
Answer: BCD
Question: 19
Which statement is true about LLDP?
A. LLDP provides VTP support.
B. LLDP does not use a multicast address to communicate.
C. LLDP can indicate only the duplex setting of a link, and not the speed capabilities.
D. LLDP does not support native VLAN indication.
Answer: D
Question: 20
The OSPF adjacency between two routers cannot be established. What is the root cause of the problem?
A. Both routers are designated routers.
B. different area ID
C. mismatched OSPF network types
D. authentication error
E. area type mismatch
Answer: E
Question: 21
What are two of the commands that you can enter to gracefully shut down OSPF and notify neighbors?(Choose two)
A. router(config-if)# ip ospf graceful shutdown
B. router(config-if)# ip ospf shutdown
C. router(config-router)# shutdown
D. router(config-router)# graceful shutdown
E. router(config)# ip notify
Answer: BC
220-901 Exam Practice Test
Question: 1
A technician needs to run a diagnostic DVD on a laptop running Windows 8.1. After setting the boot order in the UEFI BIOS to the internal DVD-RW drive, the laptop still boots into Windows. Which of the following settings needs to be adjusted in order for the laptop to boot from the DVD-RW drive?
A. TPM
B. Virtualization
C. Secure boot
D. UEFI BIOS password
Answer: C
Question: 2
A technician connects a second monitor to a desktop. It is physically located to the right of the existing monitor, but the mouse pointer can only get to the second monitor by moving to the left edge of the screen of the first monitor. Which of following display settings needs to be adjusted to get the pointer to move with the physical placement of the monitor?
A. Scaling
B. Rotation
C. Position
D. Resolution
Answer: C
Question: 3
Which of the following types of cables are MOST likely to be used to connect to an external hard drive? (Select TWO).
A. Molex
B. SPDIF
C. eSATA
D. HDMI
E. USB 3.0
F. CAT6e
Answer: C,E
Question: 4
A customer is building a high-end gaming PC and is seeking an appropriate power supply unit. Which of the following feature-sets of a power supply should be installed? (Select THREE).
A. Mini-ITX form factor
B. High number of connectors
C. 24-pin main connector
D. 20-pin main connector
E. 350-450 watts of power
F. Dual 12v rails
Answer: B,C,F
Question: 5
Which of the following is required during the installation of a digitizer?
A. Must be connected to the Internet
B. Must be cleaned
C. Must have the latest software installed
D. Must be calibrated
Answer: D
Question: 6
A technician is troubleshooting an expansion card in a computer that allows the computer to receive faxes over a VoIP line. The line connected to the expansion card is MOST likely which of the following cable types?
A. Coaxial
B. CAT3
C. CAT6
D. Multi-mode fiber
E. Single-mode fiber
Answer: C
Question: 7
For which of the following types of printers should a technician obtain a maintenance kit containing a fuser, transfer roller, and pickup rollers?
A. Thermal
B. Impact
C. Inkjet
D. Laser
Answer: D
Question: 8
Which of the following cable connection types is an example of a mini DIN?
A. BNC
B. PS/2
C. RCA
D. DB9
Answer: B
Question: 9
A customer wants a computer for performing a single-threaded task as quickly as possible. Which of the following CPU characteristics is the MOST important?
A. Clock speed
B. Hyperthreading
C. Fan speed
D. Number of cores
Answer: A
Question: 10
Which of the following display technologies provides the BEST range of visible colors?
A. CRT
B. LCD
C. Plasma
D. OLED
Answer: D
Question: 11
A customer wants to transfer data from the DVR to a DVD. Which of the following should be used on a workstation in order to extract the data for archiving?
A. Optical drive
B. Capture card
C. Thunderbolt
D. External storage
Answer: B
Question: 12
A small workgroup inherits a second-hand printer without networking capabilities. Which of the following is the BEST method of sharing this resource among the workgroup?
A. Connect the printer to a Bluetooth adapter in order for the users to print
B. Connect the printer by using the onboard Infrared port
C. Connect the printer to a user’s workstation and share the device
D. Connect the printer to a parallel switch box
Answer: C
Question: 13
A technician is building a new PC and notices that it has 8 DIMM sockets labeled 0 through 7. Four are white and four are blue. Which of the following should the technician do FIRST?
A. Install the memory in the four white slots
B. Install the memory in the four blue slots
C. Consult the motherboard documentation
D. Install the memory in slots 0 through 3
E. Fill all slots with memory
Answer: C
Question: 14
A user wants to reduce the amount of paper consumed on a multi-function printer. Which of the following settings should be configured to achieve this outcome?
A. Orientation
B. Duplex
C. Collate
D. Economy ink
Answer: B
Question: 15
A technician upgrades an older computer to Windows 8. The computer is running unusually slow, but the hardware has no problems and is adequate for the OS. Which of the following is the MOST likely solution?
A. Change the boot sequence
B. Switch the BIOS to UEFI
C. Defragment the hard drive
D. Enable virtualization
Answer: C
RC0-903 Real PDF Exam Material
Question: 1
A user wants to quickly share pictures between mobile devices. The devices will be in close proximity so the necessity of a third party service and/or another networking device is not required. Which of the following is the BEST option for this scenario?
A. NFC
B. USB
C. IR
D. WiFi
Answer: A
Question: 2
Which of the following would need to be enabled on a mobile phone to share its Internet connection with multiple devices simultaneously?
A. NFC
B. Bluetooth
C. Hotspot
D. Tethering
Answer: C
Question: 3
Android smartphones are typically different from other smartphone devices in that:
A. Android devices use apps that are more secure than other devices.
B. Android devices use open source operating systems.
C. Android devices can only operate with a proprietary operating system.
D. Android devices can receive apps from different sources.
Answer: B
Question: 4
Recently a company updated their network infrastructure. A user reports that a laptop is experiencing slower network speeds since the update. Which of the following would the technician replace, rather than purchase a new device?
A. Wireless NIC
B. CPU
C. RAM
D. Hard drive
Answer: A
Question: 5
Legacy software needs to be installed on a netbook. Which of the following is MOST likely needed in order to install the software?
A. Lightning port
B. Bluetooth adapter
C. USB optical drive
D. NFC chip
Answer: C
Question: 6
Wearable fitness tracking devices use which of the following technologies to determine user activity levels?
A. Digitizer
B. Gyroscope
C. Accelerometer
D. Inverter
Answer: C
Question: 7
A user, Ann, is preparing to travel abroad and wants to ensure that her laptop will work properly. Which of the following components of the laptop should be verified FIRST to ensure power compatibility before traveling?
A. Wall adapter
B. Battery
C. Power supply
D. Digitizer
Answer: A
Question: 8
A laptop is setup at a podium for a presentation but is set to extended desktop. The presenter would like it to show exactly what the laptop screen is showing. Which of the following would be the QUICKEST way to accomplish this?
A. Look for the setting in control panel
B. Toggle the dual display function key
C. Change the screen orientation
D. Reboot the laptop
Answer: B
Question: 9
A laptop has a network port that is not working consistently and wireless is out of range. Which of the following would the technician do to quickly get the laptop back on the wired network?
A. Use a USB to RJ-45 dongle
B. Enable Bluetooth
C. Enable NIC teaming
D. Replace the motherboard
Answer: A
Question: 10
A customer wants the thinnest laptop possible. Which of the following display technologies typically allows for thinner devices?
A. IPS
B. OLED
C. LCD
D. DisplayPort
Answer: B
Question: 11
Which of the following components is responsible for converting light into digital information?
A. Microphone
B. Digitizer
C. Inverter
D. Webcam
Answer: D
Question: 12
A customer brings a laptop in for repair, because the screen image is upside down. Which of the following is the BEST solution?
A. Change the screen orientation
B. Replace the video card
C. Connect an external monitor
D. Update the video card drivers
Answer: A
Question: 13
A user is requesting a cable to charge and transfer data for an Apple mobile device. Which of the following connection types would satisfy the user's requirements?
A. MicroUSB
B. Molex
C. MiniUSB
D. Lightning
Answer: D
Question: 14
A user reports that the cursor jumps to random screen locations when typing on a laptop computer. Which of the following devices is MOST likely causing this?
A. The touchpad
B. The mouse wheel
C. The multimedia keys
D. The digitizer
Answer: A
Question: 15
A user has requested a device that could be used for web-conferences while away from work. The device will mainly be used for emailing, document reviewing, and phone calls. Which of the following mobile devices would a technician MOST likely recommend?
A. Tablet
B. Smart camera
C. Phablet
D. Web camera
Answer: C
1Z0-331 Exam Practice Software
Question: 1
Which two statements regarding candidate readiness are true?
A. Candidates can havedifferent readiness level ratings for each plan on which they are candidates.
B. You can select the candidate readiness so that it displays on the succession plan and in the analytics to compare candidates.
C. Readiness is specific to each succession planand feeds the readiness on the worker profile.
D. The readiness level for succession plans is the same as the Advancement Readiness selection on the Career Planning portrait card.
Answer: A,B
Question: 2
You need to mass-assign goals that exist in the goal library. The requirements are as follows:
- Performance goals A1, A2, and A3 should be assigned to Manager 1’s direct reports.
- Development goals B1, B2, and B3 should be assigned to Manager 2’s direct reports.
Which option accomplished these requirements?
A. Manager 1 and Manager 2 shares goals A1, A2, and A3 and B1, B2, and B3 withdirect reports, respectively.
B. The organization owner should add goals A1, A2, A3, B1, B2, and B3 so they can be accessible as organization goals.
C. The HR Specialist selects goals from the goal library, and then assigns them to the appropriate population.
D. Manager 1 adds goals A1, A2, and A3 and Manager 2 adds goals B1, B2, and B3 to their direct reports’ performance documents.
Answer: D
Question: 3
Your client has 10 different vice-president jobs that are expected to have a high turnover rate. The client informs you that these jobs have identical or nearly identical skill sets. You are tasked with creating a succession plan, which has maximum plan strength.
Which two tasks should be carried out to fulfill your client’s requirements?
A. Selectand add a limited number of internal candidates.
B. Use the Job or Position plan type.
C. Use the Incumbent plan type.
D. Select and add a large number of candidates.
Answer: A,B
Question: 4
The Performance document has an approval step right after the Manager Evaluation step in a Performance process flow which also has a Self-Evaluation step. In the same performance, the option of “Evaluation activities can be performed concurrently” is selected.
What happens to the document control when the approval task is triggered and the document approver rejects the approval request?
A. The control of the document comes to the worker’s Line Manager.
B. The control of the document comes to the worker.
C. The control of the document is open and whoever opens and saves the document first, the document is locked for that role.
D. The control of the document remains with the approver until the performance document is shared.
Answer: A
Question: 5
Which three options can be controlled by Performance Roles?
A. Competency Section
B. Questionnaire
C. Goals Section
D. Goals section rating scale
E. Competency section rating scale
F. Performance document period
Answer: B,C,F
Question: 6
As an HR specialist, you want to mass-assign goals to workers. While assigning the goals, you selected a goal plan but did not select a goal plan period. Choose the correct option that holds true for the goal plan period in this scenario.
A. The organization owner of the respective worker assigns a goal plan period based on the individual organization goal plan period.
B. The HR specialist who assigned the goal plan either sends notification to workers about the goal plan period or manually populates the plan period based on the expected goal completion date.
C. The workers populate the plan period for the goal plan based on the expected goal’s target completion date.
D. The system determines and auto-populates appropriate goal plan and sub-period based on the goal’s target date.
Answer: B
1Z0-160 Test Certification
Question: 1
You want all your colleagues to be able to access the compute node associated with an Oracle Database Cloud – Database as a Service (DBaaS) instance. You want them to do so by using a custom host name rather than an IP address regardless of the client machine (personal or provided by the company) that they use for the access.
How would you enable this access?
A. Configure the Advanced Security Option (ASO).
B. Enable secure access to the DBaaS instance VM and database instance from remote hosts by using SSH.
C. Contact the administrator of your company’s intranet DNS and request a custom DNS record for the compute node’s public IP address.
D. Edit the machine’s/etc/hostsfile.
E. Resolve your domain name to the IP address of the DBaaS compute node by using the third-party domain registration vendor console.
Answer: C
Explanation:
You can associate a custom host name or domain name to the public IP address of a compute node associated with your Oracle Database Cloud Service environment.
To associate a custom host name to the public IP address of a compute node, contact the administrator of your DNS (Domain Name Service) and request a custom DNS record for the compute node’s public IP address. For example, if your domain is example.com and you wanted to use clouddb1 as the custom host name for a compute node, you would request a DNS record that associates clouddb1.example.com to your compute node's public IP address.
References:
https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/paas/database-dbaas-cloud/csdbi/define-custom-host-or-domain-name.html
Question: 2
With Oracle Database Cloud Service as the subscription type, you must configure a database for Backup and Recovery.
Which two options do you have to back up your database instance?
A. No backups required. You are responsible for configuring the database backups.
B. Backup to cloud storage and VM block storage. Ten days worth of backups are kept, with five most recent days worth of backups available directly on VM block storage.
C. Backup to Oracle Cloud Service storage volumes that is equal to five times the value that was provided in Usable Data Storage when the instance was created.
D. Backup to cloud storage and VM block storage. Fourteen days worth of backups arekept, with seven most recent days worth of backups available directly on VM block storage.
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
When creating a new database deployment on Oracle Database Cloud Service, you choose whether you want automatic backups to be configured for the database. Your choices are:
Both Cloud Storage and Local Storage—30 days' worth of backups are kept, with the 7 most recent days' worth available directly on the compute node’s local storage.
Cloud Storage Only—30 days' worth of backups are kept, with all backupson cloud storage.
None—automatic backups are not configured.
References:
https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/paas/database-dbaas-cloud/csdbi/db-deployments.html
Question: 3
Users must be granted roles to manage Cloud services.
Which three statements are true about roles and role assignment in Database as a Service (DBaaS)?
A. Service administrators can assign and remove roles only for users of theservices that they manage.
B. The DBaaS Database Administrator role permits granting the DBaaS Database Administrator or DBaaS Database Operator role to existing users.
C. Identity domain administrators can assign and remove roles for users in any identitydomains.
D. The DBaaS Database Operator role permits the ability to scale, patch, and backup or restore service instances.
E. DBaaS network administrators can grant access privileges to designated users.
Answer: A,D,E
Explanation:
A: A Service administrator manages administrative functions related to Oracle Cloud services within an identity domain.
D: The privileges given to the DBaaS Database Administrator role include:
Can scale, patch, and back up or restore database deployments
Question: 4
Which users are created and can be used for database and host management of your DBaaS database servers?
A. root,opcandoracleusers
B. root,oracleandcloudusers
C. rootandoracleusers
D. opcandoracleusers
E. cloudandoracleusers
Answer: D
Explanation:
Linux user accounts that are provisioned on an Oracle Database Cloud Service deployment that hosts an Oracle Real Application Clusters (Oracle RAC) database:
* opc
The system administrator account you use to connect to the compute node using SSH. This user can use the sudo command to perform operations that require root-user access.
* oracle
The Oracle Database administrator account you use to access the system and perform non-root database administration tasks.
* grid
The Oracle Grid Infrastructure administrator account you use to perform ASM, ACFS, and clusterware administration tasks.
* root
The root administrator for the system. You do not have direct access to this account. To perform operations that require root-user access, use the sudo command as the opc user.
References:
https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/paas/database-dbaas-cloud/csdbi/linux-user-accounts-rac.html
Question: 5
Which two situations require that your Database as a Service (DBaaS) instance be scaled up?
A. The DBaaS instance is maxed out on semaphore sets.
B. The database instance has reached the limit in thelicense_max_sessionsdatabase parameter.
C. The DBaaS instance is maxed out on CPU.
D. The database instance is out of space in the sysaux and system tablespaces.
E. The DBaaS instance is maxed out on storage.
F. The DBaaS instance is maxed out on semaphores.
Answer: C,E
Explanation:
Existing DBCS instances may scale up to bigger shapes in OCPU, Memory and Storage for vertical scaling. For horizontal scaling, DBCS provides RAC with the Extreme Performance option currently allowing applications to scale up to 2 nodes, each with a max of 16OCPU shapes.
Note: An Oracle CPU (OCPU) provides CPU capacity equivalent of one physical core of an Intel Xeon processor with hyper threading enabled. Each OCPU corresponds to two hardware execution threads, known as vCPUs.
References:
https://cloud.oracle.com/opc/database/faq
Question: 6
How would you enable a port persistently to keep communication open through that port always?
A. To enable a port persistently, you must contact your DBaaS support team to update the port specifications for use.
B. You can use server certificates to map a server’s identity to enable persistent connection through a port to DBaaS instances.
C. All ports that are available in DBaaS servers must use an SSH tunnel and cannot be enabled persistently.
D. To enable a port persistently, you would require access to the Compute Cloud Service Console to open the ports to a set of IP addresses.
Answer: A
Question: 7
dbaascli is a command-line interface for managing a database instance on cloud.
Which two functions can you manage with dbaascli?
A. running health checks on your database
B. creating users in the database instance
C. restoring fromthe most recent backup
D. creating a database instance
E. applying a patch
Answer: C,E
Explanation:
The dbaascli utility is provided on Oracle Database Cloud Service deployments to perform a variety of life-cycle and administration operations.
Using the dbaascli utility, you can perform operations like:
*Database recovery
The orec latest subcommand restores the most recent backup and performs complete recovery.
*Patching the database deployment
Thedbpatchmapplysubcommandapplies the patch.
*Changing the password of the SYS user
*Checking the status of the Oracle Data Guard configuration
*Switchover and failover in an Oracle Data Guard configuration
*Rotating the master encryption key
References:
https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/paas/database-dbaas-cloud/csdbi/dbaascli.html
100-105 Certifications Book
Question: 1
Which three statements are true about the operation of a full-duplex Ethernet network? (Choose three.)
A. There are no collisions in full-duplex mode.
B. A dedicated switch port is required for each full-duplex node.
C. Ethernet hub ports are preconfigured for full-duplex mode.
D. In a full-duplex environment, the host network card must check for the availability of the network media before transmitting.
E. The host network card and the switch port must be capable of operating in full-duplex mode.
Answer: A, B, E
Explanation:
Half-duplex Ethernet is defined in the original 802.3 Ethernet and Cisco says you only use one wire pair with a digital signal running in both directions on the wire. It also uses the CSMA/CD protocol to help prevent collisions and to permit retransmitting if a collision does occur. If a hub is attached to a switch, it must operate in half-duplex mode because the end stations must be able to detect collisions. Half-duplex Ethernet—typically 10BaseT—is only about 30 to 40 percent efficient as Cisco sees it, because a large 10BaseT network will usually only give you 3- to 4Mbps—at most.
Full-duplex Ethernet uses two pairs of wires, instead of one wire pair like half duplex. Also, full duplex uses a point-to-point connection between the transmitter of the transmitting device and the receiver of the receiving device, which means that with full-duplex data transfer, you get a faster data transfer compared to half duplex. And because the transmitted data is sent on a different set of wires than the received data, no collisions occur. The reason you don’t need to worry about collisions is because now Full-duplex Ethernet is like a freeway with multiple lanes instead of the single-lane road provided by half duplex. Full-duplex Ethernet is supposed to offer 100 percent efficiency in both directions; this means you can get 20Mbps with a 10Mbps Ethernet running full duplex, or 200Mbps for FastEthernet.
Question: 2
DRAG DROP
On the left are various network protocols. On the right are the layers of the TCP/IP model. Assuming a reliable connection is required, move the protocols on the left to the TCP/IP layers on the right to show the proper encapsulation for an email message sent by a host on a LAN. (Not all options are used.)
Answer:
Question: 3
Which OSI layer header contains the address of a destination host that is on another network?
A. application
B. session
C. transport
D. network
E. data link
F. physical
Answer: D
Explanation:
Only network address contains this information. To transmit the packets the sender uses network address and datalink address. But the layer 2 address represents just the address of the next hop device on the way to the sender. It is changed on each hop. Network address remains the same.
Question: 4
Which layer of the TCP/IP stack combines the OSI model physical and data link layers?
A. Internet layer
B. transport layer
C. application layer
D. network access layer
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Internet Protocol Suite, TCP/IP, is a suite of protocols used for communication over the internet. The TCP/ IP model was created after the OSI 7 layer model for two major reasons. First, the foundation of the Internet was built using the TCP/IP suite and through the spread of the World Wide Web and Internet, TCP/IP has been preferred. Second, a project researched by the Department of Defense (DOD) consisted of creating the TCP/IP protocols. The DOD's goal was to bring international standards which could not be met by the OSI model.
Since the DOD was the largest software consumer and they preferred the TCP/IP suite, most vendors used this model rather than the OSI. Below is a side by side comparison of the TCP/IP and OSI models.
Question: 5
Which protocol uses a connection-oriented service to deliver files between end systems?
A. TFTP
B. DNS
C. FTP
D. SNMP
E. RIP
Answer: C
Explanation:
TCP is an example of a connection-oriented protocol. It requires a logical connection to be established between the two processes before data is exchanged. The connection must be maintained during the entire time that communication is taking place, then released afterwards. The process is much like a telephone call, where a virtual circuit is established--the caller must know the person's telephone number and the phone must be answered--before the message can be delivered.
TCP/IP is also a connection-oriented transport with orderly release. With orderly release, any data remaining in the buffer is sent before the connection is terminated. The release is accomplished in a three-way handshake between client and server processes. The connection-oriented protocols in the OSI protocol suite, on the other hand, do not support orderly release. Applications perform any handshake necessary for ensuring orderly release.
Examples of services that use connection-oriented transport services are telnet, rlogin, and ftp.
Question: 6
Refer to the exhibit.
If the hubs in the graphic were replaced by switches, what would be virtually eliminated?
A. broadcast domains
B. repeater domains
C. Ethernet collisions
D. signal amplification
E. Ethernet broadcasts
Answer: C
Explanation:
Modern wired networks use a network switch to eliminate collisions. By connecting each device directly to a port on the switch, either each port on a switch becomes its own collision domain (in the case of half duplex links) or the possibility of collisions is eliminated entirely in the case of full duplex links.
Question: 7
Refer to the exhibit.
If host A sends an IP packet to host B, what will the source physical address be in the frame when it reaches host B?
A. 10.168.10.99
B. 10.168.11.88
C. A1:A1:A1:A1:A1:A1
D. B2:B2:B2:B2:B2:B2
E. C3:C3:C3:C3:C3:C3
F. D4:D4:D4:D4:D4:D4
Answer: E
Explanation:
When packets transfer from one host to another across a routed segment, the source IP address always remains the same source IP address, and the source physical (MAC) address will be the existing router’s interface address. Similarly, the destination IP address always remains the same and the destination physical (MAC) address is the destination router’s interface address.
Question: 8
Refer to the exhibit.
HostX is transferring a file to the FTP server. Point A represents the frame as it goes toward the Toronto router. What will the Layer 2 destination address be at this point?
A. abcd.1123.0045
B. 192.168.7.17
C. aabb.5555.2222
D. 192.168.1.1
E. abcd.2246.0035
Answer: E
Explanation:
For packets destined to a host on another IP network, the destination MAC address will be the LAN interface of the router. Since the FTP server lies on a different network, the host will know to send the frame to its default gateway, which is Toronto.
Question: 9
Which network device functions only at Layer 1 of the OSI model?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
E. Option E
Answer: B
Explanation:
Most hubs are amplifying the electrical signal; therefore, they are really repeaters with several ports. Hubs and repeaters are Layer 1 (physical layer) devices.
Question: 10
Refer to the exhibit.
The host in Kiev sends a request for an HTML document to the server in Minsk. What will be the source IP address of the packet as it leaves the Kiev router?
A. 10.1.0.1
B. 10.1.0.5
C. 10.1.0.6
D. 10.1.0.14
E. 10.1.1.16
F. 10.1.2.8
Answer: E
Although the source and destination MAC address will change as a packet traverses a network, the source and destination IP address will not unless network address translation (NAT) is being done, which is not the case here.
Question: 11
Refer to the exhibit.
As packets travel from Mary to Robert, which three devices will use the destination MAC address of the packet to determine a forwarding path? (Choose three.)
A. Hub1
B. Switch1
C. Router1
D. Switch2
E. Router2
F. Switch3
Answer: B, D, F
Explanation:
Switches use the destination MAC address information for forwarding traffic, while routers use the destination IP address information.
Local Area Networks employ Layer 2 Switches and Bridges to forward and filter network traffic. Switches and Bridges operate at the Data Link Layer of the Open System Interconnect Model (OSI). Since Switches and Bridges operate at the Layer 2 they operate more intelligently than hubs, which work at Layer 1 (Physical Layer) of the OSI. Because the switches and bridges are able to listen to the traffic on the wire to examine the source and destination MAC address. Being able to listen to the traffic also allows the switches and bridges to compile a MAC address table to better filter and forward network traffic.
To accomplish the above functions switches and bridges carry out the following tasks:
MAC address learning by a switch or a bridge is accomplished by the same method. The switch or bridge listens to each device connected to each of its ports and scan the incoming frame for the source MAC address. This creates a MAC address to port map that is cataloged in the switches/bridge MAC database. Another name for the MAC address table is content addressable memory or CAM table.
When a switch or bridge is listening to the network traffic, it receives each frame and compares it to the MAC address table. By checking the MAC table the switch/ bridge are able o determine which port the frame came in on. If the frame is on the MAC table the frame is filtered or transmitted on only that port. If the switch determines that the frame is not on the MAC table, the frame is forwarded out to all ports except the incoming port.
Question: 12
Refer to the exhibit.
Mary is sending an instant message to Robert. The message will be broken into a series of packets that will traverse all network devices. What addresses will populate these packets as they are forwarded from Router1 to Router2?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
E. Option E
Answer: B
Explanation:
The Source and Destination IP address is not going to change. Host 1 IP address will stay as being the source IP and the Host 2 IP address will stay the destination IP address. Those two are not going to change.
For the MAC address it is going to change each time it goes from one hope to another. (Except switches... they don't change anything)
Frame leaving HOST 1 is going to have a source MAC of Host 1 and a destination MAC of Router 1.
Router 1 is going to strip that info off and then will make the source MAC address of Router1's exiting interface, and making Router2's interface as the destination MAC address.
Then the same will happen... Router2 is going to change the source/destination info to the source MAC being the Router2 interface that it is going out, and the destination will be Host2's MAC address.
Question: 13
Refer to the exhibit.
A network device needs to be installed in the place of the icon labeled Network Device to accommodate a leased line attachment to the Internet. Which network device and interface configuration meets the minimum requirements for this installation?
A. a router with two Ethernet interfaces
B. a switch with two Ethernet interfaces
C. a router with one Ethernet and one serial interface
D. a switch with one Ethernet and one serial interface
E. a router with one Ethernet and one modem interface
Answer: C
Explanation:
Only a router can terminate a leased line attachment access circuit, and only a router can connect two different IP networks. Here, we will need a router with two interfaces, one serial connection for the line attachment and one Ethernet interface to connect to the switch on the LAN.
Question: 14
Which transport layer protocol provides best-effort delivery service with no acknowledgment receipt required?
A. HTTP
B. IP
C. TCP
D. Telnet
E. UDP
Answer: E
Explanation:
UDP provides a connectionless datagram service that offers best-effort delivery, which means that UDP does not guarantee delivery or verify sequencing for any datagrams. A source host that needs reliable communication must use either TCP or a program that provides its own sequencing and acknowledgment services.
Question: 15
Which layer of the OSI model controls the reliability of communications between network devices using flow control, sequencing and acknowledgments?
A. Physical
B. Data-link
C. Transport
D. Network
Answer: C
Explanation:
70-480 Real PDF Exam Material
Question: 1
DRAG DROP
You are validating user input by using JavaScript and regular expressions.
A group of predefined regular expressions will validate two input fields:
An email address in a function named validateEmail (for example, firstname@contoso.com)
A nine-digit number that allows optional hyphens after the second and fifth character in a function named validateSSN(for example, 555555555 or 555-55-5555)
You need to use the correct expression to validate the input.
Which expression should you insert into each function? (To answer, drag the appropriate regular expression statement to the correct location. Each regular expression statement may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
Answer:
Question: 2
You are developing a customer web form that includes the following HTML.
<input id="txtValue" type="text" />
A customer must enter a valid age in the text box prior to submitting the form.
You need to add validation to the control.
Which code segment should you use?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: D
.val
Return value
A string containing the value of the element, or an array of strings if the element can have multiple values
Question: 3
You are developing a customer contact form that will be displayed on a page of a company's website. The page collects information about the customer.
If a customer enters a value before submitting the form, it must be a valid email address.
You need to ensure that the data validation requirement is met.
What should you use?
A. <input name="email" type="url"/>
B. <input name="email" type="text" required="required"/>
C. <input name="email" type="text"/>
D. <input name="email" type="email"/>
Answer: D
Example:
<form>
E-mail:
<input type="email" name="email">
</form>
Reference:
http://www.w3schools.com/html/html5_form_input_types.asp
Question: 4
DRAG DROP
You are developing a form that captures a user's email address by using HTML5 and jQuery.
The form must capture the email address and return it as a query string parameter. The query string parameter must display the @ symbol that is used in the email address.
You need to implement this functionality.
How should you develop the form? (To answer, drag the appropriate code segment to the correct target or targets in the answer area. Each code segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
Answer:
Explanation:
* The serialize() method creates a URL encoded text string by serializing form values.
You can select one or more form elements (like input and/or text area), or the form element itself.
The serialized values can be used in the URL query string when making an AJAX request.
Example: $("form").serialize());
* decodeURIComponent
The decodeURIComponent() function decodes a URI component.
Return Value: A String, representing the decoded URI
Incorrect:
Not decodeURI:
decodeURI is intended for use on the full URI.
decodeURIComponent is intended to be used on .. well .. URI components that is any part that lies between separators (; / ? : @ & = + $ , #).
Reference: jQuery serialize() Method
http://www.w3schools.com/jquery/ajax_serialize.asp
http://www.w3schools.com/jsref/jsref_encodeuri.asp
Question: 5
You are developing an application that consumes a Windows Communication Foundation (WCF) service.
The application interacts with the service by using the following code. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
You need to authenticate to the WCF service.
What should you do?
A. At line 11, add the following lines of code.
,username: yourusername
,password: yourpassword
B. At line 11, add the following line of code.
,credentials: prompt
C. At line 06, replace the code with the following line of code.
url: "http://contoso.com/Service.svc/GetCountry?
Username=username&password=password",
D. At line 11, add the following line of code. The username and password will be stored in an XML file.
,credentials: credentials.xml
Answer: C
Question: 6
You are developing a web page that enables customers to upload documents to a web server. The page includes an HTML5 PROGRESS element named progressBar that displays information about the status of the upload.
The page includes the following code. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
An event handler must be attached to the request object to update the PROGRESS element on the page.
You need to ensure that the status of the upload is displayed in the progress bar.
Which line of code should you insert at line 03?
A. xhr.upload.onloadeddata =
B. xhr.upload.onplaying =
C. xhr.upload.onseeking =
D. xhr.upload.onprogress =
Answer: D
Example:
xhr.upload.onprogress = function(evt)
{
if (evt.lengthComputable)
{
var percentComplete = parseInt((evt.loaded / evt.total) * 100);
console.log("Upload: " + percentComplete + "% complete")
}
};
Reference:
http://stackoverflow.com/questions/3352555/xhr-upload-progress-is-100-from-the-start
Question: 7
You are developing a customer web form that includes the following HTML.
<label id="txtValue"X/label>
Information from the web form is submitted to a web service. The web service returns the following JSON object.
{
"Confirmation": "1234",
"FirstName": "John"
}
You need to display the Confirmation number from the JSON response in the txtValue label field.
Which JavaScript code segment should you use?
A. $("#txtValue").val = (JSONObject.Confirmation);
B. $("#txtValue").val (JSONObject.Confirmation);
C. $("#txtValue").text = (JSONObject.Confirmation);
D. $("#txtValue").text (JSONObject.Confirmation);
Answer: D
Incorrect:
not A, not B: A label object has no value attribute.
Reference:
Question: 8
HOTSPOT
You are developing a web application that retrieves data from a web service. The data being retrieved is a custom binary datatype named bint. The data can also be represented in XML.
Two existing methods named parseXml() and parseBint() are defined on the page.
The application must:
Retrieve and parse data from the web service using binary format if possible
Retrieve and parse the data from the web service using XML when binary format is not possible
You need to develop the application to meet the requirements.
What should you do? (To answer, select the appropriate options from the drop-down lists in the answer area.)
Answer:
* accepts : 'application/bint, text/xml'
accepts:'application/bin,text/xml' to accept only XML and binary content in HTML responses.
* Use the following condition to check if the html response content is binary: If(request.getResponseHeader("Content-Type")=="application/bint"
* var request = $.ajax({
uri:'/',
accepts: 'application/bint, text/xml',
datafilter: function(data,type){
if(request.getResponseHeader("Content-Type")=="application/bint")
return parseBint(data);
else
return parseXml();
},
success: function (data) {
start(data);
}
});
Question: 9
You are developing a customer web form that includes the following HTML.
<input id = "txtValue" />
A customer must enter a value in the text box prior to submitting the form.
You need to add validation to the text box control.
Which HTML should you use?
A. <input id="txtValue" type="text" required="required"/>
B. <input id="txtValue" type="text" pattern="[A-Za-z]{3}" />
C. <input id="txtValue" type="required" />
D. <input id="txtValue" type="required" autocomplete="on" />
Answer: A
Definition and Usage
The required attribute is a boolean attribute.
When present, it specifies that an input field must be filled out before submitting the form.
Example
An HTML form with a required input field:
<form action="demo_form.asp">
Username: <input type="text" name="usrname" required>
<input type="submit">
</form>
Username: <input type="text" name="usrname" required>
Reference: HTML <input> required Attribute
http://www.w3schools.com/tags/att_input_required.asp
Question: 10
DRAG DROP
You are developing a web page for runners who register for a race. The page includes a slider control that allows users to enter their age.
You have the following requirements:
All runners must enter their age.
Applications must not be accepted from runners less than 18 years of age or greater than 90 years.
The slider control must be set to the average age (37) of all registered runners when the page is first displayed.
You need to ensure that the slider control meets the requirements.
What should you do? (To answer, drag the appropriate word or number to the correct location in the answer area. Each word or number may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
Answer:
Box 1-3: The <input type="range"> is used for input fields that should contain a value within a range.
Example
<input type="range" name="points" min="0" max="10">
Box 4-5: Use the value attribute to set the default value
Box 6: Definition and Usage
The required attribute is a boolean attribute.
When present, it specifies that an input field must be filled out before submitting the form.
Example
Username: <input type="text" name="usrname" required>
Reference: HTML Input Types
http://www.w3schools.com/html/html_form_input_types.asp
Question: 11
You are developing an HTML5 web application that displays the current temperature whenever a button is clicked. The following code provides this functionality.
When the temperature is loaded, the status property on the loader instance does not change.
You need to ensure that the status property on the loader instance is updated when the temperature is loaded.
Which code segment should you use to replace the Loader function?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: A
Incorrect:
not D: window.status property
The status property sets the text in the status bar at the bottom of the browser, or returns the previously set text.
Question: 12
You are creating a class named Consultant that must inherit from the Employee class. The Consultant class must modify the inherited PayEmployee method. The Employee class is defined as follows.
function Employee() {}
Employee.prototype.PayEmployee = function ( ){
alert('Hi there!');
}
Future instances of Consultant must be created with the overridden method.
You need to write the code to implement the Consultant class.
Which code segments should you use? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Consultant.PayEmployee = function ()
{
alert('Pay Consulant');
}
B. Consultant.prototype.PayEmployee = function ()
{
alert('Pay Consultant');
}
C. function Consultant () {
Employee.call(this);
}
Consultant.prototype = new Employee();
Consultant.prototype.constructor = Consultant;
D. function Consultant() {
Employee.call(this); }
Consultant.prototype.constructor = Consultant.create;
Answer: B, C
* Object.prototype.constructor
Returns a reference to the Object function that created the instance's prototype. Note that the value of this property is a reference to the function itself, not a string containing the function's name. The value is only read-only for primitive values such as 1, true and "test".
* The constructor property is created together with the function as a single property of func.prototype.
Reference: Object.prototype.constructor
Question: 13
You are modifying an existing web page. The page is being optimized for accessibility. The current page contains the following HTML.
Standards-compliant screen readers must be able to identify the links contained within the navigation structure automatically.
You need to create the navigation link structure in the page.
With which container tags should you wrap the existing markup?
A. <navmap> </navmap>
B. <div id="nav"> </div>
C. <nav> </nav>
D. <map> </map>
Answer: C
HTML <nav> Tag
Example
A set of navigation links:
<nav>
<a href="/html/">HTML</a> |
<a href="/css/">CSS</a> |
<a href="/js/">JavaScript</a> |
<a href="/jquery/">jQuery</a>
</nav>
Reference: HTML <nav> Tag
http://www.w3schools.com/tags/tag_nav.asp
Question: 14
HOTSPOT
You are developing an airline reservation website by using HTML5 and JavaScript. A page on the site allows users to enter departure and destination airport information and search for tickets.
You have the following requirements:
Users must be able to save information in the application about their favorite destination airport.
The airport information must be displayed in the destination text box whenever the user returns to the page.
You need to develop the site to meet the requirements.
Which lines of code should you use? (To answer, select the appropriate options from the drop-down lists in the answer area.)
Answer:
Explanation:
* retrieve localStorage.destination
* store localStorage.destination
Question: 15
HOTSPOT
You are developing an HTML5 web application for displaying encyclopedia entries.
Each encyclopedia entry has an associated image that is referred to in the entry.
You need to display the image by using the correct semantic markup.
What should you do? (To answer, select the appropriate options from the drop-down list in the answer area.)
Answer:
Explanation:
The <figure> element
The <figure> element is intended to be used in conjunction with the <figcaption> element to mark up diagrams, illustrations, photos, and code examples (among other things).
Example:
<figure>
<img src="/macaque.jpg" alt="Macaque in the trees">
<figcaption>A cheeky macaque, Lower Kintaganban River, Borneo. Original by <a href="http://www.flickr.com/photos/rclark/">Richard Clark</a></figcaption>
</figure>
Reference: The figure & figcaption elements
Question: 16
You are creating a JavaScript object that represents a customer.
You need to extend the Customer object by adding the GetCommission() method.
You need to ensure that all future instances of the Customer object implement the GetCommission() method.
Which code segment should you use?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: D
* Object.prototype.constructor
Returns a reference to the Object function that created the instance's prototype. Note that the value of this property is a reference to the function itself, not a string containing the function's name. The value is only read-only for primitive values such as 1, true and "test".
* The constructor property is created together with the function as a single property of func.prototype.
Reference: Object.prototype.constructor
Question: 17
You are developing a web form that includes the following code.
When a user selects the check box, an input text box must be added to the page dynamically.
You need to ensure that the text box is added.
Which function should you use?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: B
We create a now div element with the textbox.
We then use appendChild() method appends this node as the last child the input node divname.
Reference: HTML DOM appendChild() Method
Question: 18
HOTSPOT
An HTML page has a canvas element.
You need to draw a red rectangle on the canvas element dynamically. The rectangle should resemble the following graphic.
How should you build the code segment? (To answer, select the appropriate options from the drop-down lists in the answer area.)
Answer:
* getElementById
The getElementById() method accesses the first element with the specified id. We use it to get a reference to the canvas.
* context.fillStyle.
Example:
Define a red fill-color for the rectangle:
JavaScript:
var c=document.getElementById("myCanvas");
var ctx=c.getContext("2d");
ctx.fillStyle="#FF0000";
ctx.fillRect(20,20,150,100);
Reference: HTML canvas fillStyle Property
Question: 19
You are developing an HTML5 page that has an element with an ID of logo. The page includes the following HTML.
<div>
Logo:<br>
<div id="logo">
</div>
</div>
You need to move the logo element lower on the page by five pixels.
Which lines of code should you use? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. document.getElementById("logo") .style.position = "relative";
B. document.getElementByld("logo").Style.top = "5px";
C. document.getElementById("logo").style.top = "-5px";
D. document.getElementById("logo").style.position = "absolute";
Answer: A, B
* style.position = "relative";
The element is positioned relative to its normal position, so "left:20" adds 20 pixels to the element's LEFT position.
* For relatively positioned elements, the top property sets the top edge of an element to a unit above/below its normal position.
Example: Example
Set the top edge of the image to 5px below the top edge of its normal position:
img {
position: relative;
top: 5px;
}
Reference: CSS position Property; CSS top Property
http://www.w3schools.com/cssref/pr_class_position.asp
http://www.w3schools.com/cssref/pr_pos_top.asp
Question: 20
You are developing a web page by using HTML5 and C5S3. The page includes a <div> tag with the ID set to validate.
When the page is rendered, the contents of the <div> tag appear on a line separate from the content above and below it. The rendered page resembles the following graphic.
The page must be rendered so that the <div> tag is not forced to be separate from the other content. The following graphic shows the correctly rendered output.
You need to ensure that the page is rendered to meet the requirement.
Which line of code should you use?
A. document.getElementById("validate").style.display = "inline";
B. document.getElementById("validate").style.margin = "0";
C. document.getElementById("validate").style.padding = "0";
D. document.getElementSyId("validate").style.display = "block";
Answer: A
* display: value;
value: inline
Default value. Displays an element as an inline element (like <span>)
* Example
Display <p> elements as inline elements:
p.inline {
display: inline;
}
Reference: CSS display Property
http://www.w3schools.com/cssref/pr_class_display.asp
Question: 1
You are the accounts payable manager for your company. You and the vendor agree that defective items will be returned with a reference to the original purchase order.
You need to create a vendor credit note.
What are three methods that can be used? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Copy the original purchase invoice.
B. Createa purchase order with the purchase type blanket order.
C. Create a purchase order with the purchase type journal.
D. Create a purchase order with the purchase type returned order.
E. Create a purchase order line for a negative quantity.
Answer: A,D,E
Question: 2
You are training a new employee. They need to know the items that are required for posting an invoice register.
What are the two required items? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Number allocation at posting
B. Vendor account number
C. Transaction text
D. Vendor invoice number
Answer: B,D
Question: 3
You are the purchasing agent for your company.
You need to create a request for quotation (RFQ) for a product that is not in the item drop-down list.
Which type of line item should you create?
A. Category
B. Open
C. Solicitation
D. Item
Answer: A
Question: 4
You are working with a vendor who supplies you with apparel and sporting good products. You are negotiating a new purchase agreement with the vendor.
The agreement terms you have arranged with the vendor are for a 3 percent discount on all of the sporting good products when the order volume over the next month is at least 50,000 USD.
Which commitment type should you use?
A. product quantity
B. product value
C. product category value
D. value
Answer: D
RC0-N06 Latest Certification Tests
Question: 1
A technician needs to limit the amount of broadcast traffic on a network and allow different segments to communicate with each other. Which of the following options would satisfy these requirements?
A. Add a router and enable OSPF.
B. Add a layer 3 switch and create a VLAN.
C. Add a bridge between two switches.
D. Add a firewall and implement proper ACL.
Answer: B
Explanation:
We can limit the amount of broadcast traffic on a switched network by dividing the computers into logical network segments called VLANs.
A virtual local area network (VLAN) is a logical group of computers that appear to be on the same LAN even if they are on separate IP subnets. These logical subnets are configured in the network switches. Each VLAN is a broadcast domain meaning that only computers within the same VLAN will receive broadcast traffic.
Toallow different segments (VLAN) to communicate with each other, a router is required to establish a connection between the systems. We can use a network router to route between the VLANs or we can use a ‘Layer 3’ switch. Unlike layer 2 switches that can only read the contents of the data-link layer protocol header in the packets they process, layer 3 switches can read the (IP) addresses in the network layer protocol header as well.
Question: 2
The network install is failing redundancy testing at the MDF. The traffic being transported is a mixture of multicast and unicast signals. Which of the following would BEST handle the rerouting caused by the disruption of service?
A. Layer 3 switch
B. Proxy server
C. Layer 2 switch
D. Smart hub
Answer: A
Explanation:
The question states that the traffic being transported is a mixture of multicast and unicast signals. There are three basic types of network transmissions: broadcasts, which are packets transmitted to every node on the network; unicasts,which are packets transmitted to just one node; and multicasts, which are packets transmitted to a group of nodes. Multicast is a layer 3 feature of IPv4 & IPv6. Therefore, we would need a layer 3 switch (or a router) to reroute the traffic. Unlike layer 2switches that can only read the contents of the data-link layer protocol header in the packets they process, layer 3 switches can read the (IP) addresses in the network layer protocol header as well.
Question: 3
Which of the following network devices use ACLs to prevent unauthorized access into company systems?
A. IDS
B. Firewall
C. Content filter
D. Load balancer
Answer: B
Explanation:
A firewall is a system designed to prevent unauthorized access to or from a private network. Firewalls arefrequently used to prevent unauthorized Internet users from accessing privatenetworks connected to the Internet, especially intranets. Firewalls use ACLs (access control lists) to determine which traffic is allowed through the firewall. All traffic entering or leaving the intranet passes through the firewall, which examines each message and blocks or allows the message depending on rules specified in the ACL. The rules in the ACL specify which combinations of source IP address, destination address in IP port numbers are allowed.
Question: 4
Which of the following is used to define how much bandwidth can be used by various protocols on the network?
A. Traffic shaping
B. High availability
C. Load balancing
D. Fault tolerance
Answer: A
Explanation:
If a network connection becomes saturated to the point where there is a significant level of contention, network latency can rise substantially.
Traffic shaping is used to control the bandwidth used by network traffic. In a corporate environment, business-related traffic may be given priority over other traffic. Traffic can be prioritized based on the ports used by the application sending the traffic. Delayed traffic is stored in a buffer until the higher priority traffic has been sent.
Question: 5
Which of the following is used to authenticate remote workers who connect from offsite? (Select TWO).
A. OSPF
B. VTP trunking
C. Virtual PBX
D. RADIUS
E. 802.1x
Answer: D,E
Explanation:
D: A RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-in User Service)server is a server with a database of user accounts and passwords used as a central authentication database for users requiring network access. RADIUS servers are commonly used by ISP’s to authenticate their customer’s Internet connections.
Remote users connect to one or more Remote Access Servers. The remote access servers then forward the authentication requests to the central RADIUS server.
E: 802.1X is an IEEE Standard for Port-based Network Access Control (PNAC). It provides an authentication mechanism to devices wishing to attach to a network.
802.1X authentication involves three parties: a supplicant, an authenticator, and an authentication server. The supplicant is a client that wishes to attach to the network. The authenticator is a network device,such as an Ethernet switch, wireless access point or in this case, a remote access server and the authentication server is the RADIUS server.
Question: 6
Which of the following provides accounting, authorization, and authentication via a centralized privileged database, as well as, challenge/response and password encryption?
A. Multifactor authentication
B. ISAKMP
C. TACACS+
D. Network access control
Answer: C
Explanation:
TACACS+ (Terminal Access Controller Access-Control System Plus) is aprotocol that handles authentication, authorization, and accounting (AAA) services. Similar to RADIUS, TACACS+ is a centralized authentication solution used to provide access to network resources. TACACS+ separates the authentication, authorization, and accounting services enabling you to host each service on a separate server if required.
Question: 7
A technician needs to set aside addresses in a DHCP pool so that certain servers always receive the same address. Which of the following should be configured?
A. Leases
B. Helper addresses
C. Scopes
D. Reservations
Answer: D
Explanation:
A reservation is used in DHCP to ensure that a computer always receives the same IP address. To create a reservation, you need to know the hardware MAC address ofthe network interface card that should receive the IP address.
For example, if Server1 has MAC address of 00:A1:FB:12:45:4C and that computer should always get 192.168.0.7 as its IP address, you can map the MAC address of Server1 with the IP address to configure reservation.
Question: 8
Joe, a network technician, is setting up a DHCP server on a LAN segment. Which of the following options should Joe configure in the DHCP scope, in order to allow hosts on that LAN segment using dynamic IP addresses, to be able to access the Internet and internal company servers? (Select THREE).
A. Default gateway
B. Subnet mask
C. Reservations
D. TFTP server
E. Lease expiration time of 1 day
F. DNS servers
G. Bootp
Answer: A,B,F
Explanation:
The question statesthat the client computers need to access the Internet as well as internal company servers. To access the Internet, the client computers need to be configured with an IP address with a subnet mask (answer B) and the address of the router that connects thecompany network to the Internet. This is known as the ‘default gateway’ (answer A).
To be able to resolve web page URLs to web server IP addresses, the client computers need to be configured with the address of a DNS server (answer F).
Question: 9
A technician just completed a new external website and setup access rules in the firewall. After some testing, only users outside the internal network can reach the site. The website responds to a ping from the internal network and resolves the proper public address. Which of the following could the technician do to fix this issue while causing internal users to route to the website using an internal address?
A. Configure NAT on the firewall
B. Implement a split horizon DNS
C. Place the server in the DMZ
D. Adjust the proper internal ACL
Answer: B
Explanation:
Split horizon DNS (also known as Split Brain DNS) is a mechanism for DNS servers to supply different DNS query results depending on the source of the request. This can be done by hardware-basedseparation but is most commonly done in software.
In this question, we want external users to be able to access the website by using a public IP address. To do this, we would have an external facing DNS server hosting a DNS zone for the website domain. Forthe internal users, we would have an internal facing DNS server hosting a DNS zone for the website domain. The external DNS zone will resolve the website URL to an external public IP address. The internal DNS server will resolve the website URL to an internal private IP address.
Question: 10
When configuring a new server, a technician requests that an MX record be created in DNS for the new server, but the record was not entered properly. Which of the following was MOST likely installed that required an MX record to function properly?
A. Load balancer
B. FTP server
C. Firewall DMZ
D. Mail server
Answer: D
Explanation:
A mail exchanger record (MX record) is a DNS record used by email servers to determine the name of the email server responsiblefor accepting email for the recipient’s domain.
For example a user sends an email to recipient@somedomain.com. The sending user’s email server will query the somedomain.com DNS zone for an MX record for the domain. The MX record will specify the hostnameof the email server responsible for accepting email for the somedomain.com domain, for example, mailserver.somedomain.com. The sending email server will then perform a second DNS query to resolve mailserver.somedomain.com to an IP address. The sending mailserver will then forward the email to the destination mail server.
Question: 11
Which of the following protocols uses label-switching routers and label-edge routers to forward traffic?
A. BGP
B. OSPF
C. IS-IS
D. MPLS
Answer: D
Explanation:
In an MPLS network, data packets are assigned labels. Packet-forwarding decisions are made solely on the contents of this label, without the need to examine the packet itself.
MPLS works by prefixing packets with an MPLS header, containing one or more labels.
An MPLS router that performs routing based only on the label is called a label switch router (LSR) or transit router. This is a type of router located in the middle of a MPLS network. It is responsible for switching the labels used to route packets. When an LSR receives a packet, it uses the label included in the packet header as an index to determine the next hop on the label-switched path (LSP) and a corresponding label for the packet from a lookup table. The old label is then removed from the header and replaced with the new label before the packet is routed forward.
A label edge router (LER) is a router that operates at the edge of an MPLS network and acts as the entry and exit points for the network. LERs respectively, add an MPLS label onto an incoming packet and remove it off the outgoing packet.
When forwarding IP datagrams into the MPLS domain, an LER uses routing information to determine appropriate labels to be affixed, labels the packet accordingly, and then forwards the labelled packets into the MPLS domain. Likewise, upon receiving a labelled packet which is destined to exit the MPLS domain, the LER strips off the label and forwards the resulting IP packet using normal IP forwarding rules.
Question: 12
Which of the following is MOST likely to use an RJ-11 connector to connect a computer to an ISP using a POTS line?
A. Multilayer switch
B. Access point
C. Analog modem
D. DOCSIS modem
Answer: C
Explanation:
Before ADSL broadband connections became the standard for Internet connections, computers used analog modems to connect to the Internet. By today’s standards, analog modems are very slow typically offering a maximum bandwidth of 56Kbps.
An analog modem (modulator/demodulator) converts (modulates) a digital signal from a computerto an analog signal to be transmitted over a standard (POTS) phone line. The modem then converts (demodulates) the incoming analog signal to digital data to be used by the computer.
An analog modem uses an RJ-11 connector to connect to a phone line (POTS)in the same way a phone does.
Question: 13
An administrator notices an unused cable behind a cabinet that is terminated with a DB-9 connector. Which of the following protocols was MOST likely used on this cable?
A. RS-232
B. 802.3
C. ATM
D. Tokenring
Answer: A
Explanation:
A DB-9 connector is used on serial cables. Serial cables use the RS-232 protocol which defines the functions of the 9 pins in a DB-9 connector. The RS-232 standard was around long before computers. It’s rare to see a new computer nowadays with a serial port but they were commonly used for connecting external analog modems, keyboards and mice to computers.
Question: 14
Which of the following connection types is used to terminate DS3 connections in a telecommunications facility?
A. 66 block
B. BNC
C. F-connector
D. RJ-11
Answer: B
Explanation:
A DS3 (Digital Signal 3) is also known as a T3 line with a maximum bandwidth of 44.736 Mbit/s. DS3 uses 75 ohm coaxial cable and BNC connectors.
Question: 15
An F-connector is used on which of the following types of cabling?
A. CAT3
B. Single mode fiber
C. CAT5
D. RG6
Answer: D
Explanation:
An F connector is a coaxial RF connector commonly used for terrestrial television, cable television and universally forsatellite television and cable modems, usually with RG-6/U cable or, in older installations, with RG-59/U cable.
Question: 16
CORRECT
TEXT
You have been tasked with testing a CAT5e cable. A summary of the test results can be found on the screen.
Step 1: Select the tool that was used to create the cable test results.
Step 2: Interpret the test results and select the option that explains the results. After you are done with your analysis, click the 'Submit Cable Test Analysis' button.
Explanation:
A Cable Certifier provides “Pass” or “Fail” information in accordance with industry standards but can also show detailed information when a “Fail” occurs. This includesshorts, the wire pairs involved and the distance to the short. When a short is identified, at the full length of the cable it means the cable has not been crimped correctly.
70-533 Free Demo Material
Question: 1
HOTSPOT
You manage an Azure Service Bus for your company. You plan to enable access to the Azure Service Bus for an application named ContosoLOB
You need to create a new shared access policy for subscriptions and queues that has the following requirements:
In the table below, identify the permission you need to assign to ensure that ContosoLOB is able to accomplish the above requirements. Make only one selection in each column.
Answer:
For Service Bus, the three permission claims are ‘Send’ for all send operations, ‘Listen’ to open up listeners or receive messages, and ‘Manage’ to observe or manage the state of the Service Bus tenant.
To receive a message from a queue we need to have Listen access level.
To numerate subscriptions, we need to have the manage access level.
References:
http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/azure/hh403962.aspx
Question: 2
Your network includes a legacy application named LegacyApp1. The application only runs in the Microsoft .NET 3.5 Framework on Windows Server 2008.
You plan to deploy to Azure Cloud Services.
You need to ensure that LegacyApp1 will run correctly in the new environment.
What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Upload a VHD with Windows Server 2008 installed.
B. Deploy LegacyApp1 to a cloud service instance configured with Guest OS Family 2.
C. Deploy LegacyApp1 to a cloud service instance configured with Guest OS Family 1.
D. Deploy LegacyApp1 to a cloud service instance configured with Guest OS Family 3.
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
B: Guest OS Family 3 and Guest OS Family 4 supports .NET 4.0 and .Net 4.5.
Question: 3
You administer a cloud service named contosoapp that has a web role and worker role.
Contosoapp requires you to perform an in-place upgrade to the service.
You need to ensure that at least six worker role instances and eight web role instances are available when you apply upgrades to the service. You also need to ensure that updates are completed for all instances by using the least amount of time.
Which value should you use with each configuration? To answer, drag the appropriate value to the correct configuration. Each value may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Answer:
* You need to ensure that at least six worker role instances and eight web role instances are available when you apply upgrades to the service.
* You can decide whether you want to update all of the roles in your service or a single role in the service. In either case, all instances of each role that is being upgraded and belong to the first upgrade domain are stopped, upgraded, and brought back online. Once they are back online, the instances in the second upgrade domain are stopped, upgraded, and brought back online.
References:
http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/azure/hh472157.aspx#proceed
Question: 4
You migrate a Windows Server .NET web application to Azure Cloud Services.
You need enable trace logging for the application.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Update the service definition file.
B. Update the Azure diagnostics configuration.
C. Update the service configuration file.
D. Enable verbose monitoring.
E. Update the application web.config file.
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
A: Step 1 section:
“diagnostics monitor is imported into a role by specifying an Import element with a module Name of “Diagnostics” in the Imports section of the service definition file”
B: Step 2 explain how to add the diagnostic file in the solution and step 3 how to configure it.
References:
https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/azure/Dn482131.aspx#BKMK_step5
Question: 5
You manage a cloud service that is running in two small instances. The cloud service hosts a help desk application. The application utilizes a virtual network connection to synchronize data to the company's internal accounting system.
You need to reduce the amount of time required for data synchronization.
What should you do?
A. Configure the servers as large instances and re-deploy.
B. Increase the instance count to three.
C. Deploy the application to Azure Web Sites.
D. Increase the processors allocated to the instances.
Answer: A
Explanation:
References: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/azure/dn197896.aspx
Question: 6
You manage a cloud service that has a web application named WebRole1. WebRole1 writes error messages to the Windows Event Log.
Users report receiving an error page with the following message: "Event 26 has occurred. Contact your system administrator."
You need to access the WebRole1 event log.
Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Enable verbose monitoring.
B. Update the WebRole1 web.config file.
C. Update the cloud service definition file and the service configuration file.
D. Run the Set-AzureVMDiagnosticsExtensionPowerShell cmdlet.
E. Run the Enable-AzureWebsiteApplicationDiagnostic PowerShell cmdlet.
F. Create a storage account.
Answer: A,C,F
Explanation:
step 1 specify the scheduled TransferLogLevelFilter to Verbose in the diagnostics.wadcfg
step 2 Update the cloud service definition file and the service configuration file (.cspkg)
step 3 best practice is to create a separate storage account for logging diagnostics data
References: http://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/documentation/articles/cloud-services-how-to-monitor/
Question: 7
DRAG DROP
You manage an application hosted on cloud services. The development team creates a new version of the application. The updated application has been packaged and stored in an Azure Storage account.
You have the following requirements:
Which four steps should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Answer:
Once you have uploaded the compiled package to Azure Storage, you would create a new staging deployment. You can then provide the URL to the development team. Once approved, you would promote the new deployment to production by performing a VIP swap. You can then stop the instance of the old production deployment and keep it at hand in the staging slot.
References:
http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ff803371.aspx
Question: 8
You manage a cloud service that utilizes data encryption.
You need to ensure that the certificate used to encrypt data can be accessed by the cloud service application.
What should you do?
A. Upload the certificate referenced in the application package.
B. Deploy the certificate as part of the application package.
C. Upload the certificate’s public key referenced in the application package.
D. Use RDP to install the certificate.
Answer: A
Explanation:
You have to upload a .pfx file, and not a .cer file. pfx files contains the private key, while cer files contains public and private keys.
References: http://azure.microsoft.com/en-gb/documentation/articles/cloud-services-configure-ssl-certificate/#step3
Question: 9
You administer a Windows Server virtual machine (VM).
You upload the VM to Azure.
You need to ensure that you are able to deploy the BGInfo and VMAccess extensions.
What should you do?
A. Select the Install the VM Agent checkbox while provisioning a VM based on your uploaded VHD.
B. Select the Enable the VM Extensions checkbox while provisioning a VM based on your uploaded VHD.
C. Install the VM Agent MSI and execute the following Power Shell commands:$vm = Get-AzureVM -serviceName $svc -Name $name$vm.VM.ProvisionGuestAgent = $trueUpdate-AzureVM -Name Sname -VM $vm.VM -ServiceName $svc
D. Install the VM Agent MSI and execute the following Power Shell commands:$vm = Get-AzureVM -serviceName $svc -Name $nameSet-AzureVMBGInfoExtension -VM $vm.VMSet-AzureVM Access Extension -VM $vm.VMUpdate-AzureVM -Name Sname -VM $vm.VM -ServiceName $svc
Answer: C
Explanation:
You are uploading a VM to Azure (not provisioning a VM from Azure – so therefore needs the VM Agent MSI)
Is VM Agent installed?
$x = Get-AzureVM -ServiceName $vmName
$x.vm.ProvisionGuestAgent
If ‘False’ –
1. Install standalone VM Agent
2. Inform the Azure platform that the VM now has the agent installed
$vm = Get-AzureVM –serviceName $svc –Name $name $vm.VM.ProvisionGuestAgent = $TRUE Update-AzureVM –Name $name -VM $vm.VM -ServiceName $svc
References: https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/azure/dn832621.aspx
Question: 10
You manage a cloud service that supports features hosted by two instances of an Azure virtual machine (VM).
You discover that occasional outages cause your service to fail.
You need to minimize the impact of outages to your cloud service.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Deploy a third instance of the VM.
B. Configure Load Balancing on the VMs.
C. Redeploy the VMs to belong to an Affinity Group.
D. Configure the VMs to belong to an Availability Set.
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
Adding your virtual machine to an availability set helps your application stay available during network failures, local disk hardware failures, and any planned downtime.
Combine the Azure Load Balancer with an Availability Set to get the most application resiliency. The Azure Load Balancer distributes traffic between multiple virtual machines.
References: http://azure.microsoft.com/en-gb/documentation/articles/virtual-machines-manage-availability/
Question: 11
You administer an Azure subscription with an existing cloud service named contosocloudservice. Contosocloudservice contains a set of related virtual machines (VMs) named ContosoDC, ContosoSQL and ContosoWeb1.
You want to provision a new VM within contosocloudservice.
You need to use the latest gallery image to create a new Windows Server 2012 R2 VM that has a target IOPS of 500 for any provisioned disks.
Which PowerShell command should you use?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: D
Explanation:
The New-AzureQuickVM cmdlet sets the configuration for a new virtual machine and creates the virtual machine. You can create a new Azure service for the virtual machine by specifying either the Location or AffinityGroup parameters, or deploy the new virtual machine into an existing service.
AdminUsername is not required.
References:
https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/azure/dn495183.aspx
Question: 12
DRAG DROP
You administer an Azure Virtual Machine (VM) named server1. The VM is in a cloud service named ContosoService1.
You discover that the VM is experiencing storage issues due to increased application logging on the server.
You need to create a new 256-GB disk and attach it to the server.
Which Power Shell cmdlets should you use? To answer, drag the appropriate cmdlet to the correct location in the Power Shell command. Each cmdlet may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Answer:
This example gets a virtual machine object for the virtual machine named “MyVM” in the “myservice” cloud service, updates the virtual machine object by attaching an existing data disk from the repository using the disk name, and then updates the Azure virtual machine.
Windows PowerShell
C:\PS>Get-AzureVM "myservice" -Name "MyVM" `| Add-AzureDataDisk -Import -DiskName "MyExistingDisk" -LUN 0 `| Update-AzureVM
References:
http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dn495298.aspx
Question: 13
Your company has two cloud services named CS01 and CS02. You create a virtual machine (VM) in CS02 named Accounts.
You need to ensure that users in CS01 can access the Accounts VM by using port 8080.
What should you do?
A. Create a firewall rule.
B. Configure load balancing.
C. Configure port redirection.
D. Configure port forwarding.
E. Create an end point.
Answer: E
Explanation:
All virtual machines that you create in Azure can automatically communicate using a private network channel with other virtual machines in the same cloud service or virtual network. However, other resources on the Internet or other virtual networks require endpoints to handle the inbound network traffic to the virtual machine.
References:
http://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/documentation/articles/virtual-machines-set-up-endpoints/
Question: 14
You administer a solution deployed to a virtual machine (VM) in Azure. The VM hosts a web service that is used by several applications. You are located in the US West region and have a worldwide user base.
Developers in Asia report that they experience significant delays when they execute the services.
You need to verify application performance from different locations.
Which type of monitoring should you configure?
A. Disk Read
B. Endpoint
C. Network Out
D. CPU
E. Average Response Time
Answer: B
Explanation:
The question states: “You need to verify application performance from different locations”. The question is not asking you to determine WHY the application is slow, it’s asking you to ‘measure’ the performance from different locations.
Endpoint Monitoring monitors your server with HTTP Get requests from locations that you choose.
References:
https://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/documentation/articles/web-sites-monitor/#webendpointstatus
https://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/documentation/articles/app-insights-web-monitor-performance/
Question: 15
You are the administrator for three Azure subscriptions named Dev, Test, and Prod.
Your Azure Power Shell profile is configured with the Dev subscription as the default.
You need to create a new virtual machine in the Test subscription by using the least administrative effort.
Which Power Shell command should you use?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: A
Explanation:
Example: Set the current subscription
This command makes Test the current subscription.
Windows PowerShell
C:\PS> Select-AzureSubscription -SubscriptionName Test -Current
References:
http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dn722499.aspx
2V0-731 Passing Guarantee Exam
Question: 1
In the vRealize Orchestrator client, where can an administrator view the workflow and repair validation errors?
A. Runtab in workflow editor
B. Validationtab in workflow editor
C. Workflowtab in workflow editor
D. Schematab in workflow editor
Answer: C
Question: 2
A user receives a submission page with a red exclamation when attempting to submit a request.
Which option best explains this behavior?
A. The approver has NOT approved the request.
B. The user exceeded the allowable resources for that request.
C. Actions have NOT been assigned to that item.
D. The user is NOT entitled to that resource.
Answer: B
Question: 3
Which are three valid scenarios based on the image? (Choose three.)
A. The subscriptions will be run based on priority in ascending order.
B. The priority helps to run the subscriptions in a deterministic order.
C. There is no default timeout value.
D. The default timeout is 5 minutes.
E. Priority and timeout values are needed for subscription blocking.
Answer: B,D,E
Question: 4
Which two items are required for an administrator to successfully create a vSphere reservation? (Choose two.)
A. A reservation policy
B. A business group
C. A compute resource
D. A network profile
Answer: A,D
Question: 5
What specific action must an administrator take before deleting an approval policy?
A. Deprecate the policy
B. Unpublish the policy
C. Deactivate the policy
D. Decomission the policy
Answer: C
Question: 6
A compute resource in a fabric group has 100 GB of memory. The following memory reservations were created from the compute resource:
Business Group A: 60 GB
Business Group B: 60 GB
What would be the expected result of this configuration?
A. Both business groups will compete for memory resources.
B. Both business groups will be guaranteed 50 GB of memory
C. Business group A will be guaranteed 60 GB of memory
D. The configuration will result in an error.
Answer: C
Question: 7
Which two options are supported for the laaS database in a minimal deployment of vRealize Automation? (Choose two.)
A. Microsoft SQLServer installed on the IaaS server
B. Microsoft SQL Server installed on an external server
C. PostgreSQL Server installed on an external server
D. PostgreSQL Server installed on an IaaS server
Answer: A,C
Question: 8
Which two statements are true when configuring redundant, high availability vRealize Automation proxy agents for one vCenter Endpoint? (Choose two.)
A. Agent names must be identical
B. Agent configurations must include different vSphere credentials.
C. Agent configurations must be identical.
D. Agent named must have the same root with the extension01and02.
Answer: A,C
Question: 9
The vRealize Orchestrator Server Configuration for XaaS activity needs to be pointed to an external server for all current and future tenants. The default server configuration is currently in use.
Which two options accomplish this task? (Choose two.)
A. Log into the default tenant as a system administrator.
B. Configure the external vRO connection under theInfrastructuretab.
C. Log into the default tenant as a tenant administrator.
D. Configure the external vRO connection under theAdministrationtab.
Answer: A,D
Question: 10
An external vRealize Orchestrator is being configured to automate items in vRealize Automation. The plug-in is installed, but an administrator is still unable to automate items in vRA.
Which two items below will enable vRO to automate items in vRA, including aspects of laaS? (Choose two.)
A. Add an IaaS host to vRO using the workflow.
B. Edit the plug-in interface to add the vRA host information.
C. Add a vRO endpoint in vRA.
D. Add a vRA host to vRO using the workflow.
Answer: A,C
MB2-712 PDF Training Guides
Question: 1
A user named User1 is the owner of a background workflow that makes changes to an account after the Credit Limit field of the account is modified.
A user named User2 adds a new account and saves the record.
A user named User3 edits the record and changes the street address of the account.
A user named User4 edits the record and adds a parent account.
User2 changes the value in the Credit Limit field and assigns the account to User4.
You need to identify which name will be displayed in the Last Modified By Field on the account record.
Which name should you identify?
A. User3
B. User1
C. User2
D. User4
Answer: B
Question: 2
You receive leads that are generated from your company's website.
Once the leads are in Dynamics CRM, they must be assigned to a specific CRM user based on the city from which the lead came, and then moved to the queue of the user.
You plan to create a workflow to manage the process.
You need to identify which event should be used to trigger the workflow.
A. Record is assigned.
B. Record status changes.
C. Record is created.
D. Record is deleted.
Answer: C
Question: 3
You have a custom entity named Entity1 that has three activated business process flows named BPF2. BPF2. and BPF3,
You need to ensure that BPF2 in visible only to customer service representatives from the web client. What should you do?
What should you do?
A. Branch the process flow.
B. Configure security roles.
C. Edit the process scope.
D. Rename BPF2 to come before BPF1.
E. Edit the definition of Entity1.
Answer: B
Question: 4
On the contact entity, you are creating a business rule that has the Set visibility action.
You need to identify which form elements you can control by using the Set visibility action.
What should you identify?
A. the sub-grids and quick view forms only
B. the form fields, form sections, and form tabs only
C. the form fields only
D. all of the form elements
Answer: C
Question: 5
You are reviewing the security roles of a user.
You discover that the user has multiple security roles.
You need to identify the resulting privileges of the user.
What should you identify?
A. The user only has privileges from the most recent security role to which the user was assigned.
B. All privileges are cumulative, unless one of the roles turns off a privilege, in which case that specific privilege is not applied to the user.
C. All privileges are cumulative.
D. The user has the most restrictive level of privileges.
Answer: C
Question: 6
You have the business units in a Dynamics CRM organization as shown in the following table.
You create a new security role named New Employee that is being used by all of the business units. Users in the Consumer Sales business unit who are assigned the role report that they fail to update records that they should be able to update.
You plan to update the security role so that the users can update the records.
You need to identify in which business unit you must update the role.
Which business unit should you identify?
A. Sales
B. Root
C. Enterprise Sales
D. Service
E. Consumer Sales
Answer: B
Question: 7
Your company uses Dynamics CRM Online.
You have an entity that has the ownership set to User or Team.
You need to add a drop-down list to the entity. The drop-down list will contain six list items, and will trigger a workflow that has a custom activity.
What should you do?
A. Use a real time workflow.
B. Use the trigger option from Microsoft SQL Server.
C. Add an option set field to the entity.
D. Add a lookup field to the entity.
Answer: C
Question: 8
You have a Dynamics CRM organization.
Currently, users can view 50 records per page.
You need to ensure that the users can view 250 records per page.
What should you do?
A. Instruct the users to configure their options.
B. Instruct the users to create custom views.
C. Instruct an administrator to configure the view settings, and then to share a view.
D. Instruct the administrators to configure their options.
Answer: A
Question: 9
You have a user who must import a file every Monday. The file contains contacts from events the user attended during the weekend.
The events are scheduled every weekend for the next 18 months.
You need to prevent duplicate contacts from being created when the user Imports the contacts.
What should you do?
A. Create a real-time workflow.
B. Add a duplicate detection rule to the data map.
C. Schedule a duplicate detection job.
D. Apply a duplicate detection rule to the Import Data Wizard.
Answer: B
Question: 10
You have a Dynamics CRM organization.
You enable Manager Hierarchy security.
You have the users shown in the following table.
You need to identify which actions the Vice President can perform.
What should you identify?
A. Read and update the records owned by Sales Manager. Read and update the records owned by Sales User.
B. Read and update the records owned by Sales Manager. Read the records owned by Sales User.
C. Read and update the records owned by Sales Manager. Read the records owned by CEO.
D. Read all of the records in the organization. Edit the records owned by Sates Manager.
Answer: B
Question: 11
You have a Dynamics CRM organization that contains two business units named Sales and Marketing.
You need to create a team to which you can assign security roles and that can contain users from the Sales business unit
What are two possible ways to achieve the goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Create an owner team that belongs to the Sales business unit.
B. Create an access team that belongs to the Sales business unit.
C. Create an access team that belongs to the root business unit.
D. Create an owner team that belongs to the root business unit.
Answer: A,D
Question: 12
Your Dynamics CRM organization uses Dynamics CRM Online.
You need to assign a license for a new user.
What should you use?
A. the Microsoft Office 365 admin center
B. the Microsoft Azure Service Bus settings
C. the Dynamics CRM settings
D. the Active Directory Users and Computers console
Answer: A
C2090-600 Real Exam
Question: 1
Assuming no database connections exist, which of the following will dynamically change the LOCKLIST database configuration parameter for a database named SAMPLE to AUTOMATIC?
A. UPDATE DB CFG FOR sample USING LOOCKLIST AUTOMATIC IMMEDIATE
B. UPDATE DB CFG FOR sample USING LOOCKLIST 8192 AUTOMATIC IMMEDIATE
C. CONNECT TO sample;UPDATE DB CFG FOR sample USINGLOCKLIST AUTOMATIC IMMEDIATE;CONNECT RESET;
D. ATTACH TO db2inst1;UPDATE DB CFG FOR sample USING LOCKLIST AUTOMATIC;DETACH;
Answer: C
Question: 2
Which two tasks must be done to read data directly from IBM Softlayer Object Storage and insert it into a DB2 database? (Choose two.)
A. Catalog a storage access alias in the DB2 database
B. Create an FTP account on IBM Softlayer Object Storage
C. Use the DB2REMOTE parameter of the LOAD command
D. Establish a remote connection to IBM Softlayer Object Storage using DB2 Connect
E. Create a local disk alias at the database server operating system level that points to IBM Softlayer Object Storage
Answer: A,C
Question: 3
Which of the following statements about compression for BLU MPP tables is TRUE?
A. Compression must be explicitly enabled for BLU MPP tables
B. Compression requires decompression to evaluate partition joins
C. Unique compression dictionaries are generated for each partition
D. Each table has a single compression dictionary that getsreplicated across all partitions
Answer: D
Question: 4
A production database has the following daily midnight backup schedule which includes all table spaces. The database incurs the same volume of daily activity (inserts, updates, and deletes).
Sunday – Delta
Monday – Incremental
Tuesday – Delta
Wednesday – Delta
Thursday – Incremental
Friday – Delta
Saturday – Full
Which day would you expect a RECOVER DATABASE following that day’s backup to take the longest time to complete?
A. Friday
B. Monday
C. Saturday
D. Wednesday
Answer: A
Question: 5
Which statement about NOT ENFORCED unique constraints is TRUE?
A. NOT ENFORCED unique constraints can not be defined on primary key columns
B. The query optimizer will consider a NOT ENFORCED unique constraint when selecting an optimal data access plan
C. When attempting to insert data that does not conform to a NOT ENFORCED unique constraint, awarning will be returned
D. Storage requirements for a NOT ENFORCED unique constraint are no different than the storage requirements for a similar unique index
Answer: A
Question: 6
What is an advantage of using range partitioned tables?
A. Abilityto run utilities against the partitions in parallel
B. Increased query performance through data partition elimination
C. Block indexes are much smaller than RID indexes, providing better performance
D. Table data is automatically and continuously clustered, requiring minimal reorganization
Answer: B
7230X Preparation Guides
Question: 1
Avaya currently uses the online tool called Avaya Diagnostic Methodology (ADM) for partners to raise trouble tickets and receive assistance, and expects customers/partners to have performed the following tasks before raising a trouble ticket.
1. Clearly stated the problem.
2. Detailed the findings.
3. Clarified the problem.
When they receive the trouble ticket, what is the next step in the diagnostic methodology that Avaya Tier 3 support will perform?
A. Identify a patch to fix the problem.
B. Update the Knowledge Management database.
C. Implement a solution.
D. Determine the cause.
Answer: D
Question: 2
Which statement about Avaya Tier 2/Business Partners is true?
A. They immediately escalate to Tier 3 as issue is encountered.
B. They describe the problem to Tier 3 in an escalation ticket and Tier 3 isolates and resolves the issue.
C. They isolate issue, resolve issue then escalate to Tier 3 for corrective action.
D. They isolate the issue, and if no root cause is found, escalate to Tier 3 to resolve the issue.
Answer: D
Question: 3
A Network Administrator of a company has been made aware of a problem with the telephone system, and contacts a few colleagues who have dealt with similar problems in the past.
Which Discipline in 8D Methodology describes the action of the Network Administrator?
A. D4
B. D3
C. D2
D. D1
Answer: A
Question: 4
Avaya Support personnel report a case, including root cause and resolution, in the Knowledge Base.
Which 8D Methodology discipline covers this action?
A. D8
B. D7
C. D6
D. D5
Answer: C
Question: 5
Under which condition is a Business Partner/Avaya Tier 2 not required to escalate to Avaya Tier 3?
A. when the customer issue is not service affecting
B. when the Business Partner/Avaya Tier 2 haveisolated issue and found a resolution
C. when the issue for the customer is intermittent
D. when the issue is a common one resolved through an upgrade
Answer: D
Question: 6
After completing Discipline 4, Determining Root Cause, of the 8D Troubleshooting Methodology, what is the next discipline to be completed?
A. Discipline 5 – Implement a Work-around
B. Discipline 5 – Implement Corrective Actions
C. Discipline 5 – Choose Corrective Actions
D. Discipline 5 – Prevent Recurrences
Answer: C
Question: 7
Who is responsible for Discipline 4, Determining Root Cause, of the 8D Troubleshooting Methodology?
A. Business Partners
B. Avaya Tier 2
C. Third Party Support
D. Avaya Tier 3
Answer: B
7130X Latest Certification Tests
Question: 1
Before SIP Trunking configuration can begin, which state must the Avaya Session Border Controller for Enterprise (SBCE) be in?
A. Registered
B. Provisioned
C. Commissioned
D. Ready
Answer: C
Explanation:
Prerequisite Conditions for SIP Trunking
Starting point for SIP-trunking administration:
System Management > Installed tab shows SBC(s) Commissioned indicates a successful initial console configuration.
References: Avaya Aura Session Border Controller Enterprise Implementation and Maintenance (2012), page 302
Question: 2
After the initial provisioning script has been run you see your Avaya Session Border Controller for Enterprise (SBCE) displaying a Registered state in the Web GUI. You click on the install link in the EMS System Management > Devices menu to continue the installation.
After displaying a status of Provisioning for a short while, which status does the SBCE display?
A. Commissioned
B. Up
C. Busyout
D. Maintenance-Busy
Answer: A
Explanation:
SBC states:
References: Avaya Aura Session Border Controller Enterprise Implementation and Maintenance (2012), page 201
Question: 3
From a remote worker’s SIP Endpoint connected via Mobile Workspace, which tool is used to trace the successful way through Avaya Session Border Controller for Enterprise (SBCE) of an Invite message?
A. traceRT
B. traceSM
C. traceMW
D. traceSBC
Answer: B
Explanation:
traceSM is an interactive perl script that allows an administrator to capture, view, and save call processing activity on a Session Manager. While not as powerful or versatile as wireshark, traceSM is absolutely essential when it comes to working with Avaya SIP. First off, it allows you to view SIP messages even if they have been encrypted with TLS.
Question: 4
The provisioning script automatically runs as part of the first boot-up of the Avaya Session Border Controller for Enterprise (SBCE). During this process you assign the Management IP address to the SBCE. You browse to the Element Management System (EMS) to continue to install the SBCE.
On the System Management > Devices web page, which status does the SBCE display before the Install link is clicked?
A. Ready
B. Provisioned
C. Registered
D. Commissioned
Answer: C
Explanation:
Below
References: Avaya Aura Session Border Controller Enterprise (2012), page 201
Question: 5
To watch Avaya Session Border Controller for Enterprise (SBCE) messages in real time as they pass through the SBCE, which tool on the SIP command line do you use?
A. traceSBC
B. traceSM –m
C. traceTOOL
D. trace
Answer: A
Explanation:
The tcpdump tool is the main troubleshooting tool of Avaya SBCE, which can capture network traffic. Using tcpdump is a reliable way to analyze the information arriving to and sent from the SBC.
However, tcpdump has its own limitations, which can make troubleshooting difficult and time consuming. This traditional tool is not useful in handling encrypted traffic and real-time troubleshooting.
The traceSBC tool offers solutions for both issues.
In Real-time mode, traceSBC must be on active Avaya SBCE. traceSBC is started without specifying a file in the command line parameters. The tool automatically starts processing the log files. The live capture can be started and stopped anytime without affecting service.
Example:
# traceSBC
References: Troubleshooting and Maintaining Avaya Session Border Controller for Enterprise (December 2015), page 27
https://downloads.avaya.com/css/P8/documents/101014063
210-065 Certifications Book
Question: 1
Which four features are provided by Cisco TelePresence Management Suite? (Choose four.)
A. Scheduling of video conference calls
B. Built-in-bridge functionality for multiparty video conferences
C. SIP-H .323 protocol interworking
D. Centralized management of conference resources
E. SMTP email event notification
F. Endpoint configuration backup and restore
G. Cisco TelePresence endpoint automated redundancy
H. Automated resource optimization
Answer: A, D, E, F
Question: 2
Which three features are supported by Cisco TMSPE? (Choose three.)
A. Simplified provisioning
B. LDAP user import
C. Scheduling via Microsoft Outlook
D. FindMe
E. Jabber for Windows
F. Automatic endpoint upgrades
Answer: A, B, D
Question: 3
Management wants to modify Cisco TMS to allow users to configure the call behavior with their associated devices and dial from a single ID. Which feature needs to be enabled and configured?
A. Smart Scheduler
B. Low-touch Provisioning
C. FindMe
D. CMR Provisioning
Answer: C
Question: 4
Refer to the exhibit.
Which configuration item shown in the exhibit should be used to assign the internal and external video communication server address for this group of users?
A. User Settings > Video Address pattern
B. Administrative Tools > User Settings
C. Configuration Template > Edit Template
D. User Import > Configuration
Answer: C
Question: 5
Which scheduling and management application can be installed on any hardware platform that meets the minimum specifications that the end customer decides to deploy?
A. Cisco Video Communications
B. Cisco TelePresence Management Suite
C. Cisco Digital Media Manager
D. Cisco TelePresence Management Switch
E. Cisco Unified Communications Manager
Answer: B
Question: 6
Which encoder is best suited for professional, studio-quality audio and video processing?
A. Scientific Atlanta Encoder
B. Cisco Digital Media Encoder 1000
C. Cisco Digital Media Encoder 2000
D. Cisco Digital Media Encoder 3000
Answer: C
Question: 7
In an ISR Cisco Video Management and Storage System, what is the maximum storage capacity allowed per module?
A. 1 TB per module
B. 2 TB per module
C. 3 TB per module
D. 500 MB per module
E. 750 MB per module
F. 850 MB per module
Answer: A
Question: 8
Which Cisco TelePresence multipoint platform utilizes only Cisco Unified Communications Manager for call control?
A. Cisco TelePresence Multipoint Control Unit
B. Cisco TelePresence Multipoint Switch
C. Cisco TelePresence Server
D. Cisco TelePresence Media Bridge Server
E. Cisco TelePresence System 500-32
F. Cisco TelePresence SX20
Answer: B
Question: 9
Which well-known port is used to access the Cisco IP Video Surveillance Operations Manager via a secure, ActiveX web session?
A. 20
B. 80
C. 421
D. 434
E. 443
F. 8080
Answer: E
Question: 10
When a call is placed from a Cisco VCS registered SIP-only endpoint to an H.323-only endpoint, which type of call license is consumed?
A. traversal call
B. non-traversal call
C. on-net call
D. interworking call
E. off-net call
F. Cisco Unified Workspace Licensing
Answer: A
Question: 11
Which protocol does the Cisco TelePresence Content Server use for call signaling?
A. MGCP
B. Cisco Proprietary
C. SCCP
D. H.323
Answer: D
Question: 12
XYZ Corporation has more than 1000 Cisco video endpoints and they want a high availability solution for scheduling and OBTP. Which option do you recommend?
A. standalone Cisco TelePresence Manager server
B. cluster of Cisco TelePresence Manager servers
C. standalone Cisco TelePresence Management Suite server
D. cluster of Cisco TelePresence Management Suite servers in active/passive failover mode
E. load-balanced cluster of Cisco TelePresence Management Suite servers
F. Cisco Prime collaboration manager
Answer: D
Question: 13
In the H.264 video codec, which type of video frame is sent when the remote side requests a fast picture update?
A. I-frame
B. P-frame
C. B-frame
D. C-frame
Answer: A
Question: 14
Refer to the exhibit.
Which system does this web user interface refer to?
A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager
B. Cisco Video Communications Server
C. Cisco Digital Media Manager
D. Cisco TelePresence Management Suite
Answer: D
Question: 15
Which description of medianet is true?
A. A set of protocols that accelerate the delivery of media across the network
B. A family of switches and routers that support multimedia applications
C. When the network works together with the endpoints to scale, optimize, and enhance the performance of collaboration components
D. A capability of the network to enhance video streaming quality
E. A Cisco proprietary feature that is built on hardware DSP resources
Answer: C
MB6-893 Preparation Material
Question: 1
Your company is using basic budgeting and is planning to configure budget control.
You need to identify the additional configuration that is needed.
Which three components will already be configured as s part of the basic Budgeting setup? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. budget models
B. budget exchange rates
C. over budget permissions
D. budget cycles
E. documents and journals
Answer: CDE
Question: 2
You are setting up the budgeting module for your employer and are given a list of budget codes needed in the system.
You want to create a "Preliminary" budget code but are unable to select it on the "budget Codes" form.
Which configuration key enables "Preliminary" and "Apportionments" budget types?
A. General Ledger – advanced II configuration key
B. Budget control configuration key
C. General Ledger configuration key
D. Public Sector configuration key
Answer: A
Question: 3
You decide that department managers must submit budget plans to you each quarter.
You need to use the budget planning template wizard to generate a budget planning template that each department submit to you.
What are three prerequisites for creating a template for budget plan worksheets? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Create a budget plan and review its information by using a worksheet template.
B. Decide which matrix fields to creat.
C. Select the worksheet template to use for the budget planning process.
D. Decide which fields to use for the header.
E Decide which columns to include on the worksheet.
Answer: ABD
Question: 4
You need all budget transfers to use a workflow except the specific members of the budget transfer rules.
When creating a budget transfer rule, what information is used to define when transfers are allowed?
A. the dimensions on the transfer
B. the amount of the transfer
C. the date of the transfer
D. the employee requesting the transfer
Answer: C
